Proto-Indo-Uralic is possibly an ancient language that was spoken around ten thousand years ago. I have heard that this has evidence but it hasn’t been proven. So, is there any real evidence (archaeological, comparative etc.) for the existence of such a protolanguage?

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    This question has a lot of overlap with that one: linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/34326/… Feb 17 '20 at 18:58
  • Not really, that is about reconstruction. This is about proof of existance Feb 17 '20 at 19:07
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    Note that I did not cast a "close as duplicate" vote, I just want to have the link to the other question here (and prominently in the sidebar). Feb 17 '20 at 19:12
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    Reconstruction and proof of existence for an unattested language are very closely related. Because we have no attestation, any proof must be purely implied, and the best way to show that it should exist is that existence would explain something, usually correspondences. Those correspondences might also imply a form they might have both come from. Feb 17 '20 at 19:39
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    They wouldn't support it, they'd simply be consistent with it. But since languages leave no archaeological traces, they can't support any particular language family.
    – jlawler
    Feb 17 '20 at 22:57