As the title shows, in a VP ‘get out’, is PP ‘out’ an adjunct of VP ‘get’, or a complement of V ‘get’?

  • 1
    It depends on the context. Get out the binoculars is not the same as Get out of here.
    – jlawler
    May 2 '20 at 16:38
  • 2
    @jlawler for example “I stop the car and get out.”
    – Yola
    May 2 '20 at 17:08
  • for this second language speaker it's a univerbation, gettout, quoting Elaine from Seinfeld. In German it would really be a univerbation raus hier!, supposedly contracted from the PP her-aus, but I doubt that to the point that I want to derive the r- from elsewhere (from a laryngeal, or simply the same morpheme as in he-re, that requires it to have been morphemic before becoming an inflectional suffix, cp Dutch er). It's difficult to see however that should pertain to this question, if get were a Middle Engl. loan from Norse, in case it acquired the sense "become, go" only later
    – vectory
    May 2 '20 at 17:44
  • In the sentence "Get out", "out" is complement of "get". It must be a complement since it is obligatory for this sense of "get", which means to leave somewhere like a car or house. Obligatory items are always complements.
    – BillJ
    May 2 '20 at 18:41
  • 1
    So, by this definition of complement, all the particles in phrasal verbs are complements?
    – jlawler
    May 2 '20 at 18:53

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