In English, when describing a personal state, the verb be is used often. For example in English, using be: "I am scared," compared to the German, using have: "Ich habe Angst." Is there any functional difference? German has a word for scared, "erschrocken," so why "Ich habe Angst" over "Ich bin erschrocken"?

  • Erschrocken doesn't mean afraid, it means startled.
    – Cairnarvon
    Jul 3 '20 at 22:31
  • "I am scared" uses a passive participle, while "I have fear" uses a noun.
    – amI
    Jul 4 '20 at 9:01
  • Judging from the way relative "have" clauses reduce, "have" is equivalent to "be with" ("the man who has a limp" = "the man with a limp"). So the difference between "have" and "be" is merely syntactic.
    – Greg Lee
    Jul 4 '20 at 17:03
  • This doesn't seem to actually be a question at the moment
    – Tristan
    Jul 6 '20 at 10:46

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