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Did the Greek term 'κεραία' (keraia) derive from the Ivri term 'Kera' ( כְרָעַ֨ )?

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    Why should it? The Greek word means "antenna" or "horn", the Hebrew one "to kneel, to bow down, to collapse". What should the connection be? BTW, we don't do single word etymological comparison here. – jk - Reinstate Monica Sep 8 '20 at 15:08
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    Why would it? Horns don’t usually have that shape at all. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Sep 8 '20 at 18:37
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    Which dalet? Do you mean the resh? – Keelan Sep 8 '20 at 19:01
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    No, the Greek word has a very secure Indo-European etymology. It's definitely not a borrowing. – TKR Sep 8 '20 at 23:55
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Greek keraía comes from Ancient kerás "horn", from Proto-Indo-European *ḱerh₂-, cognate with English "horn" (and also the second half of "unicorn", via Latin, and various others in other languages).

There's been some suggestion that this word could be related to Proto-Semitic *qarn-, ancestor of Hebrew qeren. But the exact details of this (such as who borrowed it from whom) are lost to time.

I'm not aware of any connection to keraʕ; the meanings seem totally unrelated ("horn" versus "kneel down"), so I wouldn't expect any sort of relation there.

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