In Arabic, there is this concept of the maṣdar. For some time, I thought it was simply the verbal noun, then I realized—correct me if I am wrong—it is more than that. (As I am a complete beginner in Arabic, I am not sure about “in what ways” it is more than that.) When people talk about the root or the etymology of some Arabic verb, they often talk about its maṣdar. (If I am correct, it is possible that more than one verb may have same maṣdar.)

Here is what I am still not clear about: For a given verb and its maṣdar, which existed first, the maṣdar or the root verb? (That is, is it always the case that the verb is derived from the maṣdar, or can it be both ways?) And why is it important? What is its significance? (That is, in English, or my native language Turkish, the verbal noun is not the first thing one mentions when talking about the root or the etymology of a verb. The verbal noun is the verbal noun; if there is a verb, there is a verbal noun for that verb, finished.)

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    The simplest and most common form is always the 3rd-person perfect. Masdars are often more complicated. It is fair to say that the masdar is derived from the simpler form. – Bert Barrois Oct 30 '20 at 11:06

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