Let's say we have a Country 'A' that spoke a Language 'A'. In Language 'A' (LA) they had the word "Shamish" (IPA: /ʃamɪʃ/)
A Language 'X' (LX) is gaining ground in Country 'A' and they have the same word with the same meaning but with one difference. The ending "sh" is replaced by an "s" ==> "Shamish" --> "Shamis" (IPA: /ʃamɪs/)
Country 'A' now uses "Shamis" in LA but how is this "new" word classified ?!
Let's assume that these two "similar" words are independent from each other and their formation was merely out of luck.
-Could it be considered that:
- it might be a natural change ?
- a replacement from LX, therefore "Shamis" in LA is now a borrowed word
- an influence from LX's inflection (using "s" instead of "sh") so "Shamis" in LA is still an LA term but with LX features