In another forum I was reading this answer which makes the following (unsourced) claim:
Locke's way of putting it was that the material a person gathers and develops through labor are a property of that person, in the same sense that (say) one talks about 'weight' as a property of a material object, which is where we get the term 'property' we use today.
Now I am somewhat familiar with Locke's Labor Theory of Property and this is a fair abbreviated summary of it. However, the last bit "...which is where we get the term 'property' we use today" was new to me and somewhat surprising.
The reviews of Locke that I have read have generally talked about it (the Labor Theory of Property) as advancing a justification for the individual's preeminent ownership of property, as though "property" already had that meaning. None that I can recall implied that Locke was actually creating a new meaning of the word property, but these were articles on history and political science, not specifically on linguistics or etymology.
So was Locke really the origin of this meaning of the word property?
I have searched for this online but all I have been able to find is the etymology of the word itself (Middle English, etc.), but nothing specific about the source of this meaning of property as "physical objects or things that are owned by someone or something", as opposed to the implied prior meaning as "a quality or attribute of something".