Another example is (certain Eritrean dialects of) Tigrinya. There is a trill which can be transcribed in IPA as [r], a clear alveolar trill, which is phonologically /R:/ (using "R" to unify tap and trill). Singleton /R/ is phonetically [ɾ]. Examples: [har:i] "silk", [baħaɾi] "sea". The dorsals /k, k', g/ lenite under obscure circumstances ("post-vocalic when singleton" is the best answer, though certain consonants block lenition). /k'/ tends to be retracted compared to /g/ and /k/, and ends up being uvular especially when lenited. Lenition of /k'/ generally results in a uvular trill, for example /bʌk'ʌli/ "mule" is pronounced [bʌʁ̥̆ʌli]. The notation [ʁ̥̆] indicates that there is periodic modulation of the airstream during the dorsal consonant, but it is not (generally) the result of vocal fold vibration, it comes from back-of-the-mouth tissue vibration. A near-minimal pair with /rr/ is [haʁ̥̆iq̚] "crystal' (=/hak'ik'/).
The problem (not your fault) with the question is that it's not clear that there is such a thing as a uvular trill as a deep phonological object. The prior question is, are there any languages that have robust (irreducible) phonemic contrasts between a purported trilled uvular and various high-similar non-trilled uvulars, that is, do [ʀ] and [ʁ] contrast in any language, and do we have clear evidence that reported [ʀ] is a trill. Remember that people typically ignore peripheral articulatory claims of the IPA when there is no distinct letter for writing a difference. There is no letter for distinguishing a non-trileld uvular sonorant continuant from a trill.