The Greek work opse meant late in Homer. By the time of Philostratus (3rd c. A.D.) it sometimes had the meaning of too late. Of course, if someone arrives too late for an event, they arrive "after" it.
Modern Greek doesn't have the word opse. My theory is that the adverb opse (late) morphed into a preposition (after). But, Greek already has meta meaning after. So, opse faded out of existence. Does my theory seem correct? Is it way off base? Your critique will be most valuable for my research.