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I was reading the Wikipedia page on Order of acquisition and they said that many studies in the 1970s studied "whether a consistent order of morpheme acquisition", e.g. in L2 learners for English. But these studies were "widely criticized, as insufficient attention was given to the overuse of these features."

What is meant by this? I don't quite understand the nature of the criticism.

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    Actually, that's an unsupported assertion made on 15 Dec 2010, so the appropriate question would be "What evidence is there that this is true?" Funny that they only citation-tag the "flurry of studies" statement and not the "widely criticized" assertion. It's not about the meaning, it's about the evidence. – user6726 Jul 20 at 14:46
  • You can start with Murakami, A., & Alexopoulou, T. (2016). L1 influence on the acquisition order of English grammatical morphemes: A Learner Corpus Study. Studies in Second Language Acquisition, 38(3), 365-401. doi:10.1017/S0272263115000352 , see "Literature Review" there cambridge.org/core/journals/… – Alex B. Jul 21 at 0:34
  • @user6726 The 15 Dec 2010 edit didn't change the article body. The current wording dates back to 22 July 2013, but the passage was already in the oldest revision of "Second language acquisition" from 2004, which was then split into "Order of acquisition" in 2010. – Nardog Jul 21 at 0:39
  • The passage seems to have been based on Ellis (1994: 95). – Nardog Jul 21 at 0:46

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