(1)[Zhangsan] zhidao [ta] zuo de dui. Zhangsan know he do right

(2)??[Zhangsan] zhidao [ta] zuo le zhejian shiqing. Zhangsan know he do ASP this thing

Huang1988 proposed that the main verb (1) is "zuo", and he argued for the secondary predicate hypothesis instead of primary predication hypothesis which suggests the second verb is the main verb. enter image description here

Anyway, he thinks there is a pro dropped in the embedded clause of (1). The predicate logic is shown below,

ZHIDAO[zhangsan, ZUO(ta, DUI(e))]

ZHIDAO[zhangsan, ZUO(ta, zhejian shiqing)]

In (1), can “ta” be a binder of pro and also be a bindee of Zhangsan? Or it can be analyzed that pro is bound by Zhangsan and ta is also bound by Zhangsan. Here comes up another question, can a binder bind two bindees? I am not sure about the theory itself. So I am wondering if you know anything of it? Does English have this similar phoenonemon? The pro is in third predicate and the secondary predicate of the embedded clause, so which one is its binder?

I guess for English, it is not that complex since the reflexive can not be subject because of the morphology. "John knows he is full" and "John knows he has done it." The pronoun can corefer in both sentences. But in Chinese, if we use "zuo de dui", it is very likely to corefer while if there is no secondary predicate in embedded clause, it is marginal.

  • Why the question marks for (2)? Nov 22 at 7:23
  • According to the data I have collected and my personal judgment all show that it can not corefer.
    – Xia.Yili
    Nov 26 at 8:26
  • So they’re not intended to show that the sentence is grammatically very dubious, then? Just that the coreference is? Because the sentence itself is clearly perfectly grammatical, as I’m sure you’re aware already. Nov 26 at 8:33
  • @JanusBahsJacquet the sentence itself is perfectly grammatical as you mentioned, just the coreference is not. I have asked someone and I think I got what I want. But still thanks for bringing it up. :)
    – Xia.Yili
    Nov 27 at 10:16

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