I would like to know what process suffered the Latin word marmor when it was borrowed in French and became marbre. I know that the process from French marbre to English marble is dissimilation, i.e. change from r to l, but I don't really know how to explain the change of the ending -BRE in Latin for -MOR in French.
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1Marmorem to marb(o)rem is also dissimilation: m_m becomes m_b to be less similar.– Janus Bahs JacquetMay 9, 2022 at 17:16
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It's not -mor to -bre, but -more(m) to -bre, because most Romance words come from the accusative.– LjLMay 9, 2022 at 18:42
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1Latin /r/ and /l/ dissimilate in many words. Consider colonel/coronel, marmor/marble, and the Latin adjectival suffix -al/-ar,– jlawlerMay 9, 2022 at 20:31
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2-more -> -mre (by syncope) -> -mbre (by epenthesis). Compare English thimble <- OE þȳmel.– Colin FineMay 9, 2022 at 22:46