In Hebrew, the 7 verb forms (or "buildings") can be associated into passive-active pairs, e.g. Pa'al - Nif'al, Hef'il-Huf'al, Pi'el-Pu'al (and Hitpa'el on its own). So we can say e.g. "he wrote a book" using the active Pa'al form katav ("hu katav sefer") and a similar passive sentence "the book was written" would use the Nif'al form nikhtav ("hasefer nikhtav").
Looking through arabic conjugation tables e.g. on Wiktionary[1], I see that there seems to be a passive and active form of the past perfect tense within each form. So for example we have both kataba (active) and kutiba (passive) within form I in Arabic.
I'm aware (to the extent of my meagre knowledge of Arabic grammar) of certain relationships between the verb forms in Arabic, e.g. form II verbs are often causitive or intensive counterparts of their form I equivalents [2]. But do any of the 10 verb forms have active/passive relationships between them as in Hebrew?
[1] https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/%D9%83%D8%AA%D8%A8
[2] https://conjugator.reverso.net/arabic-verb-forms-awzan.html