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I would like to ask if it is possible that the word pas, which I think could be a Sanskrit word, is a declined case of an existing word (e.g. the nominative or vocative case).

If not, could it be a word by itself (as is)?

According to this online dictionary, pas could be the nominative singular of pa or , but the declension of these words seems to be different, with the nominative ending with .

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    That’s the same thing – h is just a word-final (sandhi-conditioned) variant of s. Commented Sep 20, 2022 at 13:42

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Sanskrit has two homophonic verbal roots pā, one meaning “to protect”, the other “to drink”. In both meanings they can occur as the second element of noun+verb compounds like nŗ-pa- “protecting men” or madhu-pa- “drinking honey”. As is normal in Sanskrit dictionaries, these words are cited as stems (without case endings); the nominative singular adds the ending -s (context form) or -ḥ (pausal form). pas and paḥ do not occur on their own as nouns, but they do occur in compounds.

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  • can you clarify about pā & pa? At the beginning you only mention the former, the examples you give are both the latter, and then at the end you mention both. If it's just that both occur in both ablaut grades it would probably be worth stating that explicitly
    – Tristan
    Commented Sep 22, 2022 at 12:52
  • @Tristan. Yes, ablaut.
    – fdb
    Commented Sep 22, 2022 at 12:55
  • Currently favoured theory is that both go back to IE *peH3 in ablaut with *pH3.
    – fdb
    Commented Sep 22, 2022 at 13:46
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In general, the nominative singular ending in Sanskrit is -ḥ. As @JanusBahsJacquet clarified, it derives from an earlier -s. However, -ḥ superficially manifests as such almost exclusively if the word to which it is added is an isolated word or if it ends the sentence. Whenever the next word in the sentence starts with a voiceless dental (i.e. t, th), then -ḥ reverts back to -s. This is part of a wider phenomenon known as external sandhi.

It is therefore possible, at least in theory, for a form lik paḥ to represent the nominative (from a root pa- or pas-).

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    do you mean voiceless dentals (seeing as your examples are t & th)?
    – Tristan
    Commented Sep 20, 2022 at 16:02
  • @Tristan. Yes, I am sorry. You are of course right, I meant voiceless dentals.
    – Tochtli
    Commented Sep 20, 2022 at 16:40
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    @user3764418 -s is the Proto-Indo-European nominative ending (you can see it in Latin -us, Greek -os, etc.). At some point before the earliest attested stage of Vedic Sanskrit, a sound change occurred in Indo-Iranian languages that changed Vs# to Vh#, but it took place before the earliest written documents. Commented Sep 21, 2022 at 7:19
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    @user3764418 Comparation of related languages. That’s how reconstructive historical linguistics work. Have a read about the comparative method. Commented Sep 22, 2022 at 7:44
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    Phonetic "ḥ" does not just derive from historically earlier s, it derives from synchronic /s/. Superficial [h] has two sources, as we can tell that the n.s. suffix is /s/ because before a voiced segment in external sandhi, /as/ becomes [o] but /ar/ become remains [ar].
    – user6726
    Commented Sep 22, 2022 at 15:39

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