Are “go” and “went” part of the same lexeme, i.e. the same set of inflected forms?
Consider this brief Glottopedia entry. The entry defines its subject matter as follows:
“A lexeme is usually defined as a set of inflected word-forms that differ only in their inflectional properties.”
The entry also provides these examples:
“The English word-forms boy and boys make up the lexeme BOY. The Latin word-forms habeo 'I have', habes 'you have', habet ' s/he has', habemus 'we have', habebam 'I had', habebunt 'they will have', and so on make up the lexeme HABERE.”
But can “went” really be described as part of a set of inflected word forms in the lexeme that also includes “go,” “goes,” and “going”? If so, how is “went” inflected?
Or am I confusing “inflections” with “inflectional properties”? (I don’t know whether there is a distinction between these terms or not). Could “went” have “inflectional properties” that make it part of the lexeme “GO” even if "went" can’t be described morphologically as being inflected?