Does vanishing of cases reflect a general trend across the languages or is this a false impression that one gets from the most Indo-European languages, like English and the Romance languages? A different angle: does the loss of case structure reflect natural language evolution or is it more likely to be a result of creolization (as happened to English under French influence or to Latin under influence of local languages)?
- Modern Slav languages, which are also of Indo-European origin, do have extensive case structures, but it is less developed than in the Proto-Indo-European.
- Modern Arabic languages seem to have lost case structure present in the classical Arabic, but the number of cases was not very big to begin with.
- Uralic languages (like Finnish and Hungarian) do have extensive case structure, but is it more or less developed than in the distant past?
- Is anything similar happening to agglutinative languages?