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I'm wondering about the origins of the various non-finite verbal endings in Latin.

My understanding so far of their PIE origins:

  • Infinitives:
    • Present Active: -s-ey (dative of an s-stem verbal noun)
    • Perfect Active: no idea
    • Present Passive: thematic genitive either on bare stem or s-stem depending on conjugation?
  • Participles:
    • Present Active: -nt-s, other branches have o-grade in thematic verbs
    • Future Active: no idea
    • Perfect Passive: -t-os
    • Future Passive: related to the gerund?
  • Verbal Nouns:
    • Gerund: presumably related to the present active participle, but the voicing is odd
    • Supine: -tu-s

Is anyone aware of further information on any of these?

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  • I'm aware this may also be suited to latin se, but as it is primarily concerned with historical linguistics I think it's better suited to here
    – Tristan
    Nov 4, 2022 at 17:32
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    Sihler (1995:610ff.) likens the present passive to Vedic infinitives based on datives of root nouns (yujé < *i̯ug-éi̯, rucé < *luk-éi̯) and says that the -r- was inserted later by analogy with the actives where applicable, e.g., act. *amāye-si vs pass. *amāye-ī*amāye-si vs *amāye-sī. In cases like *lege-si vs *leg-ī, apparently the parallel was too weak for the analogy to function. @Draconis But with something additional to account for the geminate s. Nov 4, 2022 at 18:50
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    The Latin perfect stem had four origins and four shapes -- reduplicative (dedi), sigmatic (visi), u (audivi), and long vowel (vīdi). Plus plenty of consonant gradation and vowel change, like vinco/vici or ago/egi.
    – jlawler
    Nov 4, 2022 at 19:11
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    @jlawler The stems, yes; but this is asking about the markers for the infinite forms, not the stems they’re attached to. Nov 4, 2022 at 20:11
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    @jlawler Janus is correct that I'm interested in the endings rather than stems. I've clarified the question
    – Tristan
    Nov 7, 2022 at 9:34

1 Answer 1

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I've finally found sources for those options here that don't have completely transparent parallels and that don't really require explantion.

  • Infinitives:
    • Present Active: per Weiss 2021, this is either a locative or "directive" of a neuter s-stem, either: *-si or *-sa
    • Perfect Active: Weiss says this consists of the -is- formant also seen in the pluperfect subjunctive and the -se component seen in the active indicative, so also either a location or "directive" of a neuter s-stem: *-is-si or *-is-sa
    • Present Passive: Weiss argues (on the basis of some alternative forms in -Vrier cf laudārier "to be praised") this consists of an earlier -ii̯V, comparing to the Vedic instrumental gerund in -ya/-yā. That Sanskrit form would suggest an i-stem masculine or feminine (or I guess a neuter where the -n- failed to be inserted to avoid collision of the vowels), a PIE instrumental of an i-stem would be: *-s-i-h₁ (or *-s-y-eh₁ if the ending was stressed)
  • Participles:
    • Present Active: an nt-stem: *-nt-s
    • Future Active: per Fortson this is a ro-derivative of the instrumental of the supine in -tu-: *-tu-h₁-r-os
    • Perfect Passive: an o/eh₂-stem: *-t-os
    • Future Passive (aka Gerundive): per Jasanoff 2006, this goes back to an extension of the present active participle as an o/eh₂-stem: *-nt-in-os
  • Verbal Nouns:
    • Gerund: Jasanoff argues this is a secondary substantive use of the Future Passive (Gerundive) Participle, it's an o-stem: *-nt-in-om
    • Supine: a u-stem: *-tu-s

Weiss, Michael. 2021. Outline of the Historical and Comparative Grammar of Latin. Second edition. Ann Arbor: Beech Stave Press

Fortson, Benjamin W. IV. 2007. The origin of the Latin future active participle.

Jasanoff, J. H. 2006. The Origin of the Latin Gerund and Gerundive: A New Proposal

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  • Weiss cites both the other sources used here when discussing the relevant formations and that was where I found the Fortson paper, but I'd actually found the Jasanoff one separately at an earlier date
    – Tristan
    Sep 22, 2023 at 8:11

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