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I tried to search everywhere but i couldn't find anything about my question. So i wanna ask in this site because i think this site can help me. The thing i wanna ask is Is Sanskrit the origin of all languages

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No.

Sanskrit is a member of the Indo-European language family spoken throughout most of Europe and much of South and Southwest Asia.

It is not the origin of this family. The clearest demonstrations of this are that, on the basis of Sanskrit alone one cannot predict whether Greek & Latin will have an /e/ or /o/, or whether Latin will have a /k/ or /kʷ/ <qu>.

The most recent common ancestor of the Indo-European languages is called Proto-Indo-European (PIE), and is a reconstructed language. This language is reconstructed as having distinct vowels *e & *o, both of which become *a in Indo-Iranian (and therefore in Sanskrit) but are preserved in Greek & Latin. Likewise, it is reconstructed as having three dorsal (k-like) series: *ḱ, *k, & *kʷ. In Latin the first two merge as /k/, whilst the latter is retained as /kʷ/ <qu>, whilst in Sanskrit the first becomes ś, whilst the other two merge together as /k/ (and then palatalise or aspirate to /c/ or /kʰ/ depending on position.

Sanskrit is also not even the ancestor of the Indo-Aryan languages (the Indo-European languages of Northern India) [link]. The clearest illustration of this is the Sanskrit cluster kṣ which has multiple sources in PIE, but remain partially distinct in Middle-Indo-Aryan and the modern languages:

  • PIE *ks, *kʷs, *gs, *gʷs > PII *kš > Middle Indo-Aryan kh-, -kkh-
  • PIE *dʰgʷʰ, *gʰs, *gʷʰs > PII *gʱžʱ > Middle Indo-Aryan gh-, -ggh-
  • PIE *tḱ; *ǵs, *ḱs > PII *tć, *ćš > Middle Indo-Aryan ch-, -cch-
  • PIE *dʰǵʰ, *ǵʰs > PII *ȷ́ʱžʱ > Middle Indo-Aryan jh-, -jh-

Sanskrit is very conservative in many areas, and proved invaluable to the reconstruction of PIE, but it cannot possibly be the origin of the Indo-Aryan or even Indo-European languages, let alone all languages.

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