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Both Greece and Rome had huge empires and Greek was even used to administer the Eastern Roman Empire. Christian scriptures are even primarily written in Greek. So why are there so many Romance languages and so few Hellenic ones in the modern world?

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    Do you mean, why are modern Hellenic languages considered to be dialects whereas modern Romance languages are considered to be separate languages? Are Lombardi, Tuscan and Friulian dialects of one language?
    – user6726
    May 22, 2023 at 1:32
  • @user6726 Tsakonian & Griko are not infrequently called a separate language in academic literature. I've also occasionally seen Pontic & Mariupolitan and Cappadocian Greek referred to as distinct languages
    – Tristan
    May 22, 2023 at 8:43
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    And another duplicate: linguistics.stackexchange.com/q/9656/9781 May 22, 2023 at 14:17
  • @Sir Cornflakes This is a duplicate, and its answers almost certainly answer this one. There are not that many political entities at present running on Hellenic languages, so these are classified as dialects. Viz here. May 26, 2023 at 20:05

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