Title is very vague so I'll explain what I mean. Let's say an experiment was carried out involving grammatically gendered artefacts and whether or not participants will attach gendered stereotypes to those artefacts, and they DON'T. There's no bridge = strong or = beautiful or whatever. But then another experiment is carried out, also testing grammatical gender through a different (still implicit) means and there IS a relativity effect. If we put aside unintended effects of the experiment, could it be that attaching stereotypes occurs later in information processing and that's why it was less likely to be influenced by the grammatical gender than, say, a different implicit measure which might occur before the stereotype activation?
This is a bit of a long-winded way of asking whether there's an order of information activation in the brain. I'm researching psycholinguistics but am better at the linguistics part than the psych part unfortunately if you couldn't tell!