I have seen scattered references to a pi'al conjugation, which I understand to be similar to, but distinct from, pi'el.

For example, for ק-ד-ש, I have seen קִדַּשׁ and קִדֵּשׁ. My impression is, קִדַּשׁ is used in the Bible, while קִדֵּשׁ is used in modern Hebrew. That is touched on in this comment here.

Is there a difference between pi'el and pi'al? When is pi'al used instead of pi'el?

  • There's exactly one instance of קִדַּשׁ in the Bible (1 Kings 8:64), so that book review is at least overstating its case.
    – Cairnarvon
    Feb 15 at 4:43
  • 2
    The Biblical Hebrew piel has both forms without distinction in meaning. I haven’t seen “pial” used anywhere. It can be confusing that in all forms except 3m.sg the tsere changes to schwa or patach, so maybe somebody suggested “pial” so that only the 3m.sg with tsere would be “irregular”? See uhg.readthedocs.io/en/latest/stem_piel.html#paradigm for the forms. Be aware that the review is written by a master’s student; their critique on memorizing קוּם is also a bit odd.
    – Keelan
    Feb 15 at 7:24
  • 1
    Thank you @Keelan. Reviewing the few google hits for "pial", I now understand that it is just being used as a description of an irregular form of "piel". So I withdraw my question.
    – JMS
    Feb 15 at 18:18


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