I've been reading H. White's Metahistory and he uses a well-known example (sails for ships) to show the difference between metonymy and synecdoche, but it confused me:
A similar kind of representation is contained in the Metonymical expression "fifty sail" when it is used to mean "fifty ships." But here the term "sail" is substituted for the term "ship" in such a way as to reduce the whole to one of its parts. Two different objects are being implicitly compared (as in the phrase "my love, a rose"), but the objects are explicitly conceived to bear a part-whole relationship to each other. The modality of this relationship, however, is not that of a microcosm-macrocosm, as would be true if the term "sail" were intended to symbolize the quality shared by both "ships" and "sails," in which case it would be a Synecdoche. Rather, it is suggested that "ships" are in some sense identifiable with that part of themselves without which they cannot operate.
I know there are possible arguments for every trope, but I've been taught that the expression used in this way was a synecdoche based on the part-whole argument and not the shared quality, which, to me, seems more like the metonymic attribute and not a synecdochal relationship.
Evidently, I've only recently started delving deeper into cognitive linguistics so any help would be deeply appreciated!