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There are absolutely offensive words and absolutely non-offensive words. However, certain words exist on a continuum and their connotations resist easy classification. For instance, the update to Merriam-Webster's definition of "sexual preference" in 2020 sparked controversy on social media. The dictionary included a note that the term is widely considered offensive because it suggests that sexual orientation is a matter of choice.

The issue may be further complicated by factors such as reclamation, euphemism treadmills, implicit biases, internalized discrimination and dog whistle politics.

Therefore, an objective measure of offensivenss of words is beneficial for public discussion and can help in assessing the connotations of words over time. Is there any known measure ready to be applied to various contexts?

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    Since being offended is a subjective state, I doubt there can be an objective measure for it.
    – Oliver Mason
    Commented Sep 17 at 7:56
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    Not really related to the question itself, but the notion that ‘sexual preference’ is somehow offensive is a new one on me, and I admit I don’t really understand the argument that ‘sexual orientation’ is better. A preference is not a choice (I prefer raspberries over cherries culinary just as I prefer men over women sexually, and I have no control over either), whereas an orientation very often is (I choose to align myself in a particular way in terms of politics, creed, etc.).
    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    Commented Sep 17 at 8:50
  • @JanusBahsJacquet I guess the argument would be taking for granted that these terms refer to attraction rather than activity (as is usually done in modern definitions of various sexualities), and hence "sexual preference" would seem to imply that e.g. a gay man could be attracted to a woman but prefers not to be. The people using that phrasing otoh presumably intend it to be about activity and so don't consider there to be any issue as a gay man could have sex with a woman, but would (presumably) prefer not to
    – Tristan
    Commented Sep 17 at 9:17
  • I could also see very narrow cases where even with that aside some bisexuals might feel like their answers to "sexual preference" could be misleading either way. E.g. should a bisexual who prefers people of the same gender say their sexual preference is homosexual, or bisexual? I think they'd be unlikely to describe that as offensive though
    – Tristan
    Commented Sep 17 at 9:20
  • a related previous question: linguistics.stackexchange.com/questions/46974/…
    – Tristan
    Commented Sep 17 at 9:21

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It is immediately obvious that not everyone reacts to the same language the same way - my grandmother is going to have a very different reaction to simple swearing than a teenager would.

Given that individual variation it seems clear that no objective measure can exist.

That said, there are empirical measures that can give an idea as to the offensiveness of language to society as a whole.

In the UK for instance, Ofcom (the regulatory authority for broadcasting) has done just such a study, with the aim of determining how acceptable certain language should be at different times of day (and in different contexts). The results (and brief methodological notes) can be found here.

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