In this text, acknowledged by both Theravada and Mahayana traditions as sacred, Buddha gives his speech to Kalamas. According to the dictionaries, the primal Sanskrit meaning of the word कलम (kalama) is ' a thief', which, supposedly, is not the case, since by Kalams in the buddhist text they traditionally mean the inhabitants of Kesaputta.
The original Sanskrit form is कालामसूत्र (Kālāmasūtra), with a long [a], but the vowel length is irrelevant to the purpose of the question, since a) the vowel length in Arabic is grammatical, not (primary) phonetic, as it is in Sanskrit, and b) in a case of cross-linguistic interaction (e.g. via a third language or more) the quality/quantity of vowels is a subject to change.
My question is; can there be any linguistic parallels between Arabic كلام (kalam) and the addressees of Buddha's word? The similarity between the two could be more than just a phonetic coincidence, since the two words are not just pronounced more or less alike, they also mean more or less similar concepts.
The questions seems to be not so easy to answer considering some similarities in the description of the Kalam teaching in Islam (which was first mentioned as early as in 8th century) and the essence of the suttra, since both the sutra and the philosophical doctrine emphasise the importance of following rational reasoning and discourse rather than authorities or any other sources of disputable accuracy. Given the facts of existence of Pan-Eurasian fabulae of Barlaam & Josaphat, recorded from Japan to Ethiophia and further to Portugal, this question can be not so easy to answer at all.