2

I have heard this claim stated with confidence, but it's difficult to see how it could be deduced from traditional reconstruction. Same question for ancient Greek.

4
  • 1
    Along the lines, PIE was not a unite language. It well may be that some territories spoke tonal or tone-aspected "accent" of what we call "PIE". – bytebuster Jan 11 '14 at 14:27
  • 6
    Ancient Greek wasn't a tone language, but a pitch accent language; likewise Vedic Sanskrit. On the basis of these languages, plus additional evidence from other branches (e.g. Balto-Slavic), PIE is reconstructed as a pitch-accent language. – TKR Jan 11 '14 at 23:49
  • I approve of TKR's comment, but I do not approve of the linked wikipedia article. By including Korean and Shanghaiese the article has blurred the distinction between pitch accent and tone. – fdb Jan 13 '14 at 17:08
  • @TKR true but can we treat pitch-accent as a weaker form of tonal? I mean there are still tones. – shabunc May 27 '17 at 12:41

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.