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I am aware of only few Uralic loans into Indo-Aryan languages that show migrations from Eurasia to India, Iran etc. What are typical examples of loan words that are unquestionably a result of a migration towards those final destinations and not the opposite (as OOI theory suggests)?

  • There are Indo Aryan and Indo Iranian loans into Uralic but NOT vise versa. This does serve a problem into the current view of Indo European migrations. – Anonymous May 20 '19 at 19:18
  • Although not Indo-Arian, but Anatolian, check (2008) Some Indo-Uralic Aspects of Hittite, Journal of Indo-European Studies 36 and perhaps [Introduction: Reconstructing Proto-Indo-Anatolian and Proto-Indo-Uralic] by Kloekhorst as well as a forthcomming Volume on the matter, at kloekhorst.nl – vectory May 21 '19 at 4:36
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There have been attempts to connect Uralic languages with the Dravidian languages* (one of the main linguistic families of India), but I am not aware of any attempts to relate Uralic to Indo-Aryan. In any event, the general consensus is that such deep connections cannot be determined by a few word similarities.

*For e.g., you can read: Tyler, Stephen (1968), "Dravidian and Uralian: the lexical evidence". Language 44:4. 798–812.

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    The question is about loan-words, not cognates. – Anubhav C Jun 16 '14 at 15:41
  • @AnubhavC: Clearly he is not talking merely about the loan words. He talked about the migration towards those final destinations and not the Out-of-India theory. The implication is a pre-historic connection. – plotinus Jun 17 '14 at 13:47
  • There is no such implication. He's asking about loan words acquired in the course of migration. – Anubhav C Jun 18 '14 at 3:33
  • That is correct @AnubhavC. I am looking for loans acquired in the course of migration. – Midas Jun 25 '14 at 7:29
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    You say you are "aware of only few Uralic loans" into Indo-Aryan. Are you aware of any? If so, you could share them and we would know what you are asking about. – jlawler May 20 '19 at 22:24

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