I noticed a possible connection between the Ancient Greek "γυνή" and "γένεσις". I think semantically a relation between the two terms is plausible. Unfortunately I don't know enough about PIE phonology. Please help.

1 Answer 1


The answer is no. A palatalized /g/ is a different phoneme from a labialized /g/, and there is no obvious way that they are connected.

  • @Sverre I agree. We would have to recourse to something like Nostratic, whose adherents propose the distinction was brought about by former allophonic variation before front as opposed to back round vowels which got later reduced to schwa and raised to /e/ (-gʲe- < *-ɡi- and *-ɡʷe- < *-ɡu-), but that wouldn't explain the other differences, not to mention the necessity to explain and prove the existence of a productive ablaut-like patterning (would */gun-/ be the nominalized */gin-/, or */gin-/ the verbalized */gun-/, for instance?) and a dozillion other questions arising there. Aug 18, 2015 at 13:06

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.