Examples I have found are: Sindh from India; zindiq(a heretic) from Arabic; and zeen + deen or zin+din (compare to sindon) which is from Hebrew meaning 'leaped the law'; and Sin/Shin is the 21st letter of the Hebrew Alphabet. The word 'sin' as in the Wilderness of Sin can also be referred to as the Wilderness of Zin as the same place. I also find it peculiar that this word 'sind' is phonetically the same as the word 'sinned'. This seems to point to a possible cross-fertilization of language between ancient peoples or rather that the Anglo-Saxons were from one of these nations such as the Hebrews as some in the world have declared. I am looking for more evidence to my inquiry for or against from open-minded scholars out in the world.
The existing of similar-sounding words in different languages tells you approximately nothing about any possible connection between the words. Unless you can show that they are part of a wider, regular, sound correspondence between the languages, or that there is a plausible route by which one might have been borrowed, there is no reason to believe that anything other than coincidence is involved.
To answer the question literally, of course the Anglo-Saxon words sind and related words are from older languages. Every word is, by definition, from an “older” language, that older language being either an ancestor of the current language or a language providing the source for borrowings. Specifically, these are from Proto-Germanic *sindi, which is from the Proto-Indo-European stem *h1es‑, particularly the third-person plural *h1s-énti.
Any connection to Arabic is completely spurious, as Colin said. It would be extremely surprising (though not completely unprecedented) for a basic word like "are* to be borrowed, which is a strong clue in this case that the relationship to Arabic is imaginary.
According to the Bosworth-Toller dictionary (http://bosworth.ff.cuni.cz/027789) , and based on my arabic and modern german knowledge ,i can say that "sind" which means "are"(thus "to be") have nothing to do with words such as "zindiq" in arabic.In addition,the meaning of the two words is completely different...
By the way, i don't think that some people will wait for others to borrow verbs of 'first class' like "being" or "having" or they will ?
The origin of the English word for sin is believed to originate either directly (through e̯sentia̯, the existing, real) or through early borrowing from Latin from Proto-Indo-European e̯esonti "are" with "-ont" being a common present plural 3rd person verb suffix in PIE, from the basic verb e̯esti "is".
It sounds like what you are really looking for is linguistic evidence of a Semitic substrate in Old English. Not being a linguist, you chose words which sounded similar in various languages and asked about the potential relationships. This, as you have found out by the answers you got, is not really the right way to go about establishing such a relationship. Don't be alarmed, as your mistake is very common.
If you want to continue this search on your own, you should first read the wikipedia entry on language strata. You may also want to read up on historical linguistics generally, and this hypothesis which specifically concerns itself with a Semitic influence on the Germanic languages.