I was very surprised to learn (in LSJ s.v. ἑκηβόλος) that ἑκηβόλος originally meant "attaining his aim" and not "far-shooter" as I always thought.
If the Liddell-Scott-Jones recalls the later interpretation of the word (ἑκη- < ἑκάς=far), this dictionary doesn't explain the original form, hence my questions :
(a) What's the etymology of "ἑκη-" ?
(b) Do we know some Greek authors explaining how they understand the epiklesis ?
addendum : I found here a good(?) analysis of another problem concerning the epiklesis "ἑκατηβόλος". According to Dominique Thillaud, ἑκη- can be...
either (ϝ)ἑκάς as the Ancients thought; but if, as Chantraine said, ἑκάς comes from *swe-kas (reflexive pronoun + distributive κας as in ἀνδρακάς) we can't get the ἑκατη- at the beginning of ἑκατηβόλος.
either (ϝ)εκών, (ϝ)εκόντος as in ἑκάεργος (who acts of his own free will) or as in ἑκηβόλος (who shoots of his own free will). It's Dominique Thillaud's preferred hypothesis.