I saw the following formula on Wikipedia:
morpheme + derivational morphemes + desinence (inflectional morphemes)
followed immediately by the comment not not necessarily in this order. But all the languages that I'm more or less fluent (Turkish, English, French) do follow that order.
Is there a general tendency for inflectional suffixes to follow derivational ones, or for derivational prefixes to follow the inflectional ones? In other words, is there a general tendency for derviational morphemes to be attached closer to the root morpheme? Can someone point to some counterexamples?
NOTE: This question is related, but not specific enough; none of the answers address the derivational/inflectional dichotomy.