My understanding (supported by Wikipedia) is that Latin was the spoken and written language in Ancient Rome.
Therefore, I was puzzled to read the following piece of Talmud (Gitin 80a):
מאי מלכות שאינה הוגנת? מלכות הרומיים. ואמאי קרי לה מלכות שאינה הוגנת? משום דאין להם לא כתב ולא לשון
What is an "improper sovereignty"? That is the Romans. And why were they called "improper"? Because they don't have a written or spoken language.
Rashi there (sv שאין להם) writes:
שאין להם לא כתב ולא לשון. אלא משל אומה אחרת
"They don't have a written or spoken language" -- [this means that] they used that of another nation.
The context there is a discussion of the Mishna (Gitin 79a-80a) that rules that a bill of divorce (גט) that is dated by any dating system other than that of the current rulership is invalid.
Is the above information from the Talmud, together with Rashi's explanation, accurate? If the Romans didn't create Latin, where did it come from?
( all above translations are mine )