In the modern linguistic school of thought, are Ancient Hebrew and Ancient Greek related? Hebrew is classified as Afroasiatic->Semitic, while Greek is Indo-European->Hellenic. However, in Jewish tradition, they are considered related.
A Sefer Torah (special scroll with the 5 Books of Moses) is allowed to be written in Greek, due to being able to translate it perfectly. (See answer to this question; see my question here about if it was ever done.) However, this Greek that was mentioned is an extinct language (per Maimonides, mentioned in the question).
The Talmud occasionally makes references to Greek words in interpreting Biblical verses as well. I don't have specific examples right now, but i know they exist.
Is this view shared by modern linguists?
Related: Is Classical Hebrew an Indo-European language? and Can Modern Hebrew be considered an Indo-European language?