Questions tagged [cases]

Inflectional forms that indicate the grammatical functions of nouns, pronouns and their modifiers (such as adjectives).

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What is "Argument Visibility" and “INFL“ in Case Theory?

I didn't know much about case theory. Can anyone help me explain the meaning of "argument visibility" in a way that is easy to understand? What's more, does the "INFL" mean "...
12 votes
7 answers
866 views

Are there any languages where the genitive case changes according to its object?

In forms like Claudio's house or Claudio's dogs, are there languages in which the Claudio's would change depending on gender and number of the houses or dogs?
0 votes
1 answer
97 views

Are there languages with free argument order that lack a passive voice? If not, why not?

Consider German, with its four cases and relatively free argument-order. Now consider the following German sentence, courtesy of Google Translate. Johan schenkte dem Mädchen eine Katze. (Johan gave ...
1 vote
1 answer
182 views

What differences are between Ablative of Manner and Ablative of Means/Instrument? [closed]

Keller's Learn to Read Latin says on p42 Association/Instrument In the sentence "The farmer came to the party with a poet", the phrase "with a poet" indicates that the farmer was ...
3 votes
0 answers
49 views

What is the argument position of a noun in vocative case in a sentence?

What is the argument position (e.g. subject, direct object, ...) of a noun in vocative case in a sentence, for example, in Latin?
0 votes
2 answers
106 views

Mysterious uncertainty about ablative case in Turkish

Yesterday I was watching a Turkish trivia game show on TV when a question came up about the ablative case in Turkish. The question, asked during a part of the show when questions are generally deemed ...
1 vote
1 answer
156 views

How many grammatical cases does Telugu have?

I can't figure out how many grammatical cases Telugu has: Wikipedia says 8 (Telugu grammar) Telugu itself says 8, but I'm not sure if they map 1-1 to linguistic cases (విభక్తులు/viḅaktulu) I found a ...
4 votes
2 answers
402 views

Word for difference between "in" and "into"

I was wondering whether there are words for the two types of prepositions, or a word for the distinction between them. I understand that the difference between them is that one is a "static" ...
0 votes
1 answer
55 views

Determining factor for the default inflection of a noun

In Arabic, a noun can have three different inflections depending on its role in a given sentence. For example, for the word "book", it can be kitabun, or kitaban, or kitabin. The default ...
1 vote
4 answers
441 views

Is there a language in which the verb "to ask" can be followed by a dative case?

So far as I know, the ditransitive verb "to ask" takes two accusatives in German (fragen), and the verb "to give" takes one dative and one accusative in many languages. Is there a language in which ...
5 votes
1 answer
172 views

What is "contacting case"?

According to Wikipedia, the Bats language of Eastern Georgia has a case called "contacting", but no description is offered as to its function. I checked the Russian and Georgian versions of the page ...
0 votes
1 answer
115 views

Question about a phrase with the Polish case genetive (dopełniacz)

in the following sentence: "Teraz idę do żabki po sok" What is the function of the genitive case applied on the noun "żabka"? I'm aware that with the preposition "do", ...
-1 votes
3 answers
204 views

What's the difference between nominative and absolutive case?

Why do both these cases need to exist? They are both subjects
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1 answer
75 views

On the effects of sound changes on case suffixes

I am working on a conlang and I came up with a question that I can't find a good answer too. How does sound change effect suffixes, as whenever I work on conlangs with suffixes to mark different cases ...
-4 votes
1 answer
256 views

Why is it OK to claim that a language "has no grammatical cases"?

My question is a direct consequence of this question and its answers and comments. What completely baffles me (as a non-linguist) is the claim (decision? definition?) that there can be a language on ...
9 votes
5 answers
11k views

Why there are no grammatical cases in the French language?

As far as I know, the French language is considered as a Romance language, which is derived, in its turn, from the Latin language. The last one has a rich grammatical cases system. I am interested to ...
5 votes
1 answer
616 views

What does 'overt NP' mean?

I just started studying syntax, and I am a little lost in terminology. Would someone please explain to me what does overt NP stand for?
4 votes
0 answers
243 views

Origin of Italian plurals

Some sources say that italian plurals come from the nominative case, so "italiano" has the plural "italiani", and "italiana" has the plural "italiane". However ...
1 vote
1 answer
91 views

Are there any case-based languages in which the modal verbs do not change the verb they control to the infinitive form?

I have come to realize that in all the European languages I know of, the modal verbs change the verb they control to the infinitive form. These languages are all case-based (Spanish, Danish, English, ...
4 votes
1 answer
227 views

When and by whom were the terms 'ergative case' and 'absolutive case' coined?

The terms 'ergative' and 'absolutive' indicate cases in ergative-absolutive languages. The terms themselves derive from Greek respectively Latin roots. Given that Greek and Latin are not themselves ...
2 votes
0 answers
67 views

How does Case work in an impersonal sentence?

The Case filter is what prohibits the phonetic realization of a DP that recieves no grammatical Case. In languages such as Portuguese, people use impersonal constructions like "há/tem um carro na ...
10 votes
1 answer
279 views

What is the origin of certain Hungarian suffixes?

I have a question about the etymology (within the Uralic family) of three Hungarian morphemes Accusative -t- suffix: Hungarian has an accusative in -t- (eg. fiú, fiút), which has no cognates in any ...
9 votes
2 answers
2k views

Vanishing of cases: general trend or specific to indo-European family?

Does vanishing of cases reflect a general trend across the languages or is this a false impression that one gets from the most Indo-European languages, like English and the Romance languages? A ...
1 vote
2 answers
144 views

How does case inflection work on the head noun in internally headed relative clauses?

I have read that some languages use internally headed relative clauses; so, for example, instead of saying "the man that we met yesterday went home today"; they position the shared noun in a ...
8 votes
1 answer
719 views

Indo-European languages that have innovated a nominative-accusative distinction for neuter nouns

One ubiquitous and ancient feature of Indo-European languages is a lack of contrast between the nominative and accusative for neuter nouns. I'll restrict attention to nouns here and not independent ...
8 votes
4 answers
13k views

What are the subjective and objective genitives?

I have recently come across the terms subjective genitive and objective genitive, but I don't fully understand them. From what I have read, an example might be 'the love of God', as in 'the love of ...
2 votes
1 answer
313 views

Western European languages tend to have fewer genders and simpler case systems than Eastern European ones, is this due to contact?

You can draw a relatively consistent line through Europe, to the west of which, Indo-European languages mostly have one or two genders and nouns don't inflect for case, and to the east of which, ...
2 votes
0 answers
162 views

Question about cases in Polish

Cases are baffling and puzzling to me. I'm trying to learn Polish and trying to master the cases, and I'm sincerely confused at all the different uses one case can have. If one case is, say, used with ...
2 votes
0 answers
43 views

Is there "adjunct indexation" in some languages?

The arguments of a verb may leave markers on the verb about the person and number features, which is commonly called as argument indexation. We know the distinction between arguments and adjuncts is ...
2 votes
1 answer
95 views

analogic accusative endings on pronouns?

Do accusative ‘me’ and ‘thee’ have final /m/ (or evidence of a lost or altered /m/), by analogy with (non-neuter) nouns, in any Indo-European language?
2 votes
1 answer
77 views

Why is there a Second Palatalization in personal nouns but not in non-personal nouns in Nominative Plural in Slavic languages

Using Polish as an example, why in personal nouns like "robotnik>robotnicy" or "włoch>włosi" Second Palatalization takes place in the nominative plural, but in non-personal ...
1 vote
2 answers
420 views

Does English have animate/inanimate distinction?

I know we have the "'S" genitive and the "X of Y" but I don't exactly understand the rules of using these even as a native English speaker and I'm unsure if English makes other ...
4 votes
1 answer
126 views

What is (or was) the exative case?

Inspired by this finding I'd like to know what the exative case described by Taplin for south-australian languages is or was. It does not seem to be modern terminology any longer, and lists of ...
4 votes
1 answer
419 views

Is there a question about the number of cases in Proto-Indo-European?

I've found this quote in what appears to be the Usenet sci.lang FAQ page: Earlier historical linguists cheerfully reconstructed eight cases for PIE, on the model of Sanskrit; but the IE languages ...
0 votes
1 answer
81 views

How many marked cases are there for regular nouns in English?

How many cases are marked for regular nouns in English? I see online the following: The English language has just three cases: subjective, possessive and objective. Most nouns, many indefinite ...
5 votes
3 answers
382 views

Can an object be in functional case A even though it's declined like case B?

Pardon my word choice, since I'm obviously lacking the background in linguistics. I know that language-specific questions are off-topic, yet I still like to use Finnish as an example, since it spawned ...
6 votes
3 answers
486 views

Why do two English personal pronouns — "you" and "it" — lack an objective case?

Most English person pronouns have an objective case — I/me, we/us, thou/thee, he/him, she/her, they/them, who/whom. But "you" and "it" have no such form. Did they every have one? ...
0 votes
1 answer
206 views

How should the Albanian "genitive" really be analysed?

The Albanian language is typically described as having a genitive case. In actuality, this "case" consists of an connective particle which agrees in number, gender AND CASE with the ...
6 votes
0 answers
216 views

How did Old Norse influence Old English to lose genders and cases?

Wikipedia says that "Norse influence is ... considered to have stimulated and accelerated the morphological simplification found in Middle English, such as the loss of grammatical gender and ...
4 votes
1 answer
477 views

why in Polish we change ją to jej when negating the phrase?

ja lubię ją - I like her ja nie lubię jej - I do not like her Do I understand correctly what these sentences mean? If yes, why do we change ją to jej when negating the phrase? In both cases the ...
6 votes
2 answers
1k views

Why does "brother" have the instrumental case in this Polish sentence?

The instrumental case is used to indicate the instrument/object with which an action or state of being is performed. For instance, when you go to work "by car", car is instrumental because ...
1 vote
0 answers
96 views

How can the polysemy of the Polish instrumental case be explained?

If the instrumental case in Polish is used to designate the tool with which an action, or state of being, is being performed/is, how is it that the instrumental is also used to express time and ...
17 votes
2 answers
776 views

Are there signed languages that have a case system?

In a prior question I asked whether word order in ASL has a special significance, which naturally lead to another question: do any signed languages, that is languages communicated mostly if not fully ...
0 votes
1 answer
104 views

Is the multiplicative case 'validly' present in any languages?

Wikipedia lists something called the 'multiplicative case' in its template of grammatical cases. However, on the (stub) article of said case, it lists only two Uralic languages in which it is found - ...
0 votes
4 answers
163 views

What can explain the appearance of "self-made" language features if neither of languages a person speaks or learns have similar features?

I know a woman, whose native language is Kyrgyz (Turkic family) and who learned Russian as an adult (mostly, maybe she was somewhat exposed to it before as well). What striked me is that she invented ...
2 votes
1 answer
159 views

The easiest model for mapping Hindi oblique case onto Slavic languages' case systems

How can Hindi Oblique case be mapped into Slavic cases of languages such as Polish or Russian? My intuition is that Oblique case stands for all the Polish cases, except the nominative. That is, for ...
3 votes
1 answer
353 views

Order of cases in Indo-European languages by morphologic similarity

Following the first Greek grammars or even older sources, there is a traditional and apparently arbitrary order used for cases in most if not all living European languages, e.g. in declension tables. ...
1 vote
1 answer
980 views

What does "referentiality" mean?

I have problems with the linguistic terms. I did not find satisfactory explanation about "referentiality". On the other hand, what are the differences between "case" and "referentiality"? If there is, ...
6 votes
1 answer
209 views

What is considered a grammatical case in the framework of turkic languages?

Let's take kazakh language as an example. In every source I've read there are 7 cases in kazakh language: nominative üi - a house, baqşa - garden; genitive üi-diŋ - of a house, baqşa-niŋ - of a ...
1 vote
0 answers
198 views

What is the definition of a “case” in grammar?

Among others, according to Wikipedia: "Case" is a linguistics term regarding a manner of categorizing nouns, pronouns, adjectives, participles, and numerals according to their traditionally ...