Questions tagged [declension]

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5
votes
1answer
508 views

What is the meaning of the Latin names of grammatical cases (in general, not in Latin)?

I cannot find any source explaining the Latin names of grammatical cases. I am especially curious in the names of the less common cases, like in Finnish: nominative genitive accusative partitive ...
-1
votes
1answer
139 views

Is a language without inflection a language without subject?

Subject is defined as the argument which agrees with the affixes of the verb. But if a language does not have inflectional affixes, can you state that this particular language does not have syntactic ...
3
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2answers
74 views

Is there a language where in declension number is affixed peripherally to case?

Is there a language where, given that number and case are affixed seperately not fusionally, a noun can have the structure of , e.g. ithawen = itha-w-en [woman]+GEN+PL ("of the women, the women's")? I ...
0
votes
0answers
64 views

How do I decline a noun phrase?

First, let me say that I'm bad at grammar. Everything I know about grammar I've learned because I want to make my own languages. Second, I've created an ergative-absolutive language (I'm learning as ...
4
votes
0answers
73 views

How is declension class represented in Distributed Morphology?

Does somebody knows a good paper or textbook that would have a Distributed Morphology (DM) approach to declension class? Ora Matushansky writes that it is an "underlying nominal property influencing ...
12
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5answers
1k views

Are there natural languages with the following properties (seen in Esperanto)?

Are there natural languages that have the following set of properties: The language possesses nouns, adjectives, and definite articles Nouns and adjective are both inflected for number and case (or ...
8
votes
4answers
425 views

Languages preserving loanword inflections

Erudite English has an interesting practice where the plural form of loanwords may follow the inflectional grammar of the source language. Thus "campi" as well as "campuses", "minima" as well as "...
1
vote
1answer
204 views

Origin of gen./abl. “pitur” genitive of “pitā́” (“father”) in Sanskrit

How did the Sanskrit gen./abl. singular of pitr-/pitā́ ("father") came to be pitur (and the genitive of the entire noun class as well, of course)? The evolution of all other forms (even pitā́, which ...
7
votes
1answer
831 views

Declensions in Polish

Declension, as far as I know, corresponds to the act of creating boxes where you can pile up nouns that follow the same rule when inflected (generally due to cases). Classical Latin is often said to ...
4
votes
3answers
151 views

What is it called when one “conjugates” adjectives?

If one conjugates verbs and declines nouns, what is it called when an adjective is "conjugated," as it is in French to agree in gender and plurality with the noun? (E.g. "beau" is masculine singular ...
0
votes
1answer
177 views

Are there languages with more cases than Latin?

I am currently busy with a project that involves production rules. From my years in Latin at college, I learned about the six basic ones. But if I am not confused, ablative could represent several ...
2
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1answer
339 views

What is the origin of declension/conjugation classes?

Languages with declension and conjugation usually have multiple declension and conjugation classes. If one were to invent a language with declension or conjugation, one would probably introduce only ...
1
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0answers
49 views

Old Norse kné: a- stem or wa- stem?

The neuter noun kné follows a-stem declension. But it comes from Proto-Germanic *knewą. This seems to be a wa-stem. Then why does it follow a-stem declension? Did Scandinavians force it to, even ...
8
votes
2answers
475 views

Is there something deeper behind the “verb classes swapping” of the subjunctive endings in Romance languages?

I first asked this question in https://spanish.stackexchange.com/q/15929/11155 However the Spanish community has not found any answer yet and the phenomenon is observable in many Romance languages. I ...
3
votes
1answer
271 views

declining numerals in Old English

Disclaimer : this thread is perhaps off-topic. I thank you for your indulgence since I couldn't ask such a question on https://english.stackexchange.com/ . I read in the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle, in the ...
0
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4answers
212 views

Plural form declension with numbers in Turkish

When naming some number of objects, there's only one plural form in English (2 dogs, 3 dogs, 10 dogs). But in Slavic languages like Polish the form changes depending on the number (2 psy, 4 psy, 5 ...
1
vote
1answer
175 views

Old Norse: Noun declension gen. sg. -s or -ar?

I am using A Concise Dictionary of Old Icelandic and An Introduction to Old Norse (by E. V. Gordon) as my resoources. In An Introduction, it is said that: Some nouns declined otherwise as ...
0
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1answer
43 views

Common change of conjugation of the verbs in spoken languages?

Is the natural tendency of the verbs in spoken language towards more or fewer conjugations? For example, in my language, we use conjugations related to time, person, etc. In English we have ...
6
votes
3answers
282 views

Is there some intrinsic relationship between the nominative plural and genitive singular?

In Latin the similarity between the nominative plural and genitive singular is most striking: First: porta (Nom/Sing) and portae (Nom/Pl), portae (Gen/Sing) and portarum (Gen/Pl) Second: servus (Nom/...
23
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8answers
11k views

Why did English lose declensions while German retained them?

Why did (or more specifically what caused) English lose declensions whilst they were retained in German? I ask as I have recently been reading into the various Germanic languages and it struck me that ...