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3 votes
1 answer
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Why does Proto-Indo-Aryan *ẓ seem to have different outcomes despite sharing the same phonological context?

It is well known that Proto-Indo-Aryan *s had an allophone *z in voiced contexts. Due to some phonetic changes (i.e. RUKI law and the shift *śt > ṣṭ), they both could undergo retroflexion, thus ...
Tochtli's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
282 views

Origin of gen./abl. "pitur" genitive of "pitā́" ("father") in Sanskrit

How did the Sanskrit gen./abl. singular of pitr-/pitā́ ("father") came to be pitur (and the genitive of the entire noun class as well, of course)? The evolution of all other forms (even pitā́, which ...
Eleshar's user avatar
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