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1 vote
0 answers
131 views

Any old noun class system without chaotic formal/ semantic assignment

When noun class/gender system gets old, the semantic/formal assignment rules of the noun class become more opaque/unreliable because of loanwords and erosion of (derivational) suffixes and etc. eg. in ...
Raxrax's user avatar
  • 374
10 votes
1 answer
6k views

How did the generic masculine emerge?

In an essay for school I recently claimed the generic masculine was caused by sexism, but my teacher complained that I hadn't given a reason for this. Assuming my hypothesis is correct, how did this ...
zvavybir's user avatar
  • 243
2 votes
0 answers
206 views

Common origin of PIE feminine and collective plural and semantic implications

It is generally believed that the neuter nominative-accusative plural and feminine singular in PIE both originate in a common *-h2 suffix which originally marked collective, although recent works tend ...
Erithacus Rubecula's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
129 views

How to do Practice Problem for Basque

Link to Problem(both Problems and Answers[but no explanations]) https://sites.google.com/site/paninilinguisticsolympiad/Resources/sample-problems-and-solutions My question is about the problem titled &...
MeltedStatementRecognizing's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
376 views

Western European languages tend to have fewer genders and simpler case systems than Eastern European ones, is this due to contact?

You can draw a relatively consistent line through Europe, to the west of which, Indo-European languages mostly have one or two genders and nouns don't inflect for case, and to the east of which, ...
asinoladro's user avatar
23 votes
3 answers
7k views

Why do some Indo-European languages have genders and some don't?

In some languages, like German and French, every noun has a gender and each gender has its article. Whereas languages like English and Persian do not have genders. Why is that? Even though these ...
AziZ's user avatar
  • 341
15 votes
2 answers
825 views

How stable are grammatical genders?

In languages which have gender-like classifications for nouns, like French and Russian, how often do nouns change gender over time? Have any studies been done to get statistics on how many words have ...
Jack M's user avatar
  • 321
8 votes
2 answers
566 views

Has grammatical gender ever been observed to emerge in a language that previously had none?

Does a language exist whose older forms are known to have lacked the category of grammatical gender, and which proceeded to evolve one (perhaps from a non-gender-based system of noun classes)? Are "...
Nikolay Ershov's user avatar
21 votes
7 answers
8k views

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages?

Non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages: What is their origin (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many origins)? Or what are the origins? How and for what ...
Louis Rhys's user avatar
  • 8,571