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5 votes
1 answer
140 views

Do conjunctions like "and" ever become grammaticalized into plural morphemes?

If so, what are some examples of this having occurred? For instance, take a scenario where "X-and-X" is a common expression of plurality, as in English emphatic quantitative expressions like ...
Hava's user avatar
  • 53
8 votes
2 answers
1k views

What does Eastern Aramaic have to say about "(definite) articles are acquired, not lost"?

The current answers on Definite/indefinite articles vs. inflections agree that (definite) articles are acquired by languages, not lost. I'm wondering what Eastern Aramaic has to say about this. ...
Keelan's user avatar
  • 4,840
15 votes
2 answers
3k views

Are any of the isolating languages of East Asia showing signs of gaining inflections?

It's generally accepted that languages go through a cycle of changes to their morphological type. English is losing its inflectional endings and becoming more isolating/analytic. But what about the ...
hippietrail's user avatar
  • 14.8k