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How can we say modals are of category T, but auxiliaries are really verbs? [duplicate]

Are there any arguments or theories to account for it?
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5 votes
5 answers
1k views

Are English modal verbs tensed or non-tensed?

My assumption: English modal verbs are non-tensed (i.e. we don't say shoulds or shoulded). Yet, in X' bar theory, modal verbs appear under the inflection node I', precisely where we find the ...
Puzzled's user avatar
  • 133
6 votes
1 answer
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Epistemic modality inside deontic scope?

I was taught (according to Role and Reference Grammar) that epistemic modality applies at clause level while deontic modality applies at core level. So in theory a sentence which has both would have ...
Moss's user avatar
  • 470