Questions tagged [morphosyntactic-alignment]

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9
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1answer
183 views

Are all “Ergative Languages” split-ergative?

I've noticed that in a lot of examples of "ergative languages," there is some piece of the language that does not fit the pattern we call "ergativity." For example, Basque does not mark ergative case ...
3
votes
0answers
51 views

Languages with direct-inverse verbal inflection or hierarchical alignment but no verbal inflection for person

Some languages have direct-inverse marking on verbs or hierarchical alignment. I'm wondering whether there are any attested examples of minimal direct-inverse systems where the verb is obligatorily ...
2
votes
0answers
128 views

Direct–inverse marking on the noun, or the possiblity of inverse alignment

A direct-inverse language, Wikipedia claims, is one which involve[s] different grammar for transitive predications according to the relative positions of their "subject" and their "object" on a ...
2
votes
1answer
68 views

Configurational assignment of accusative case?

I'm an undergraduate linguistics student, and I'm currently reading this chapter by Coon & Preminger (2015) (http://ling.umd.edu/assets/publications/Coon-Preminger-17-SplitErgativity.pdf), which ...
4
votes
1answer
217 views

Do different alignments restrict what kind of word order a language can have?

I've read somewhere that all known ergative languages are either verb-initial, or verb-final. I find this surprising, but I don't know of any counter-examples. I've seen plenty of nominative ...