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4 votes
1 answer
2k views

Excepting Romanian, is "Wales" ever translated/transliterated in modern languages with the same term as that meaning "Gaul" or "Gauls"?

I have noticed that in Romanian the name of Wales is Ţara Galilor, which literally means Country of the Gauls or "Gauls-land". I consider this not just unusual, something that is not present ...
cipricus's user avatar
  • 780
5 votes
1 answer
169 views

Why is it that Babylonian king names do not match their Akkadian equivalent?

I am trying to figure out why it is that Babylonian (and Assyrian) king names do not match their Akkadian transcription. For example, in the one known inscription for Nabonassar, which is written in ...
Tyler Durden's user avatar
13 votes
1 answer
2k views

Why was the name תאומא transliterated as Θωμᾶς (Thomas) rather than Τωμᾶς (Tomas)?

Thomas derives from Aramaic תאומא (cognate with the Hebrew תאום). My understanding was that Aramaic, like Tiberian Hebrew, had the fricative [θ] as a conditioned allophone for the plosive [t], and ...
Uri Granta's user avatar
  • 1,162
26 votes
4 answers
896 views

Why was מֹשֶׁה‎ transliterated as [moʊzɨz]?

How did the name "מֹשֶׁה‎" come to be transliterated with a [z] at the end? The OED entry notes that "Moses" derives from Biblical Hebrew "Mōšeh" and that the earliest attestations with a strident ...
WAF's user avatar
  • 629