Questions tagged [proto-indo-european]

Proto-Indo-European (PIE), the reconstructed proto-language for the Indo-European language family

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
1 vote
0 answers
33 views

What is Double Zero Grade?

The double zero grade *ǵʰi-m- is preserved in the compounds with numerals. (de Vaan, Etymological Dictionary of Latin 2013: hiems) E.g. *dwi-ǵʰim-os “two years old”, literally “of two winters” (en....
vectory's user avatar
  • 1,449
1 vote
1 answer
81 views

Pronunciation of ‘hₐ’ in PIE

I have tried to find the sound hₐ-, for example "hₐeust(e)ro" engl. 'east', or hₐel, 'burn' , but also example hₐner, 'man' pronunciation, but I can't find it anywhere on the internet, ...
Eliel's user avatar
  • 13
1 vote
1 answer
142 views

Was Old Church Slavonic more Greek/Thracian then actually Slavic and can Proto-Slavic be considered a languge from Indo-European family?

First of all, thank you for reading this question. While checking some proposed restorations of Indo-European words, I noticed that for Slavic words the Old Church Slavonic is used. I've searched some ...
Paul V's user avatar
  • 19
0 votes
0 answers
90 views

What recent (since 2014) work is there on the origin of the Indo-European 1st person singular nominative ego (etc.)?

I have an article by Hamp from 2011 and one by Blažek from 2014, but need to know if there is anything more recent, so I can cite it in an article that needs to be finished yesterday.
Attila the Pun's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
99 views

List of PIE words for occupations

What are the known reconstructions of PIE words for occupations? I composed some, but want a greater list: *h₃rḗǵ-s - king *dúk-s - military leader, commander *u̯iḱ-pót-i-s - village leader *pr̥h₂-wó-...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
1 vote
4 answers
317 views

Have there been attempts in making artificial alphabets for the Indo-European languages?

As far as I know linguists came to conclusion that most of the modern alphabets initially derived from the Phoenician Alphabet, which belongs to the Semitic branch of the Afroasiatic family of ...
Ilya Lakhin's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
46 views

Phonotactic Parallels to Pyysalo's Laryngeal and Schwa

Jouna Pyysalo has a rather unique reconstruction of Proto-Indo-European, that he calls System PIE (documented here, amongst other places) and describes as a new form of monolaryngealism. This ...
Tristan's user avatar
  • 6,504
1 vote
1 answer
75 views

In PIE, what was the function of the suffix *-(ō)l?

For example, in the word: *H₃nóbʰ-ōl / *H₃ómbʰ-l̥ "navel" (Wiktionary: Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/h₃nóbʰōl)
Corn Boy's user avatar
-3 votes
1 answer
243 views

Could it be that the pronoun *eǵh₂om ("I") in PIE is not an innovation?

I think, it is generally believed that the word for "I" in PIE was an innovation and in more ancient branches the 1st person singular pronoun was similar to the plural one, "min/men&...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
-3 votes
1 answer
89 views

Words for tongue in Tungusic

In Tungusic there are attested the following words for tongue: Manchu: ilenggu Nanai: siŋmu Evenki: inni, čoli Wikitionary postulates that the words ilenggu, siŋmu and inni are related and gives ...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
-1 votes
1 answer
129 views

How can a language-learner determine the root, prefix, and suffix of a word in English, if they know its language of origin?

Many English vocabulary-building books (for example, Merriam-Webster Vocabulary Builder, Word Power Made Easy) break the meaning of words down into three pieces: prefix + root + suffix. On the website ...
Tim's user avatar
  • 837
1 vote
1 answer
67 views

Questions about clusters of two dental stops in PIE

Beekes says a sibilant was inserted between two dental stops in PIE, therefore *-tt-, *-dt- > *-tst- and *-d(h)d(h)- > *-d(h)zd(h)- and the cluster is "retained as such in Hittite." ...
i's's user avatar
  • 79
0 votes
2 answers
251 views

Did Proto-Sino-Tibetan and Proto-Indo-European languages have the same origin?

Did Proto-Sino-Tibetan and Proto-Indo-European languages have the same origin? Did human develop a common language before migrated from Africa, and were most if not all the modern languages ...
Tim's user avatar
  • 837
-6 votes
1 answer
54 views

Are PIE *bal and *welH- related?

Has anyone compared eg. Bhumibol - title of Thailand's monarch, derived from Sanskrit - and oblast - a Slavic noun related to rule and governance, vb. *voldati "to rule, to reign, to govern"?...
vectory's user avatar
  • 1,449
-2 votes
2 answers
168 views

Can these similarities between PIE and Burushaski be explained?

We have: English PIE Burushaski brown bʰerH-om baard-um tongue dn̥ǵʰwéh₂s juŋus warm gʷʰer-om gar-um pair kʷeth₂ kaat fire péh₂wr̥ pʰu ...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
1 vote
2 answers
163 views

Simplicity of the verb in Germanic languages

English and German have only two tenses (the present and the past) that are formed by inflection, all the others are formed using helping verbs, as is the conditional mood. In the Romance languages ...
Neandertal's user avatar
6 votes
2 answers
517 views

If the Armenian word for "foot", "otn", really comes from PIE *podm, why did the 'p' disappear?

If the Armenian word for "foot", "otn", really comes from PIE *podm, why did the 'p' disappear? Why didn't it change into 'h', like in "hing" (five, from *penkwe) or &...
FlatAssembler's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
104 views

Besides Indo-Pacific and Australian languages does anywhere "firewood" semantically develop to "fire"?

It is known that in Australian languages the word for "tree" developed into "firewood" and then to "fire". I wonder if this development typical? Particularly, could PIE *...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
3 votes
1 answer
320 views

Proto-Indo-European transcription: <u̯, i̯> vs. <w, j> & <k̑> vs. <ḱ>, etc

I’m working through a language book that uses an idiosyncratic (& confusing) transcription, so as I go I’m making my own copy with more standard symbols. I’ve just got to a section referencing PIE ...
Moilleadóir's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
194 views

How Did the Palatovelar /*ḱ/ Consonant in PIE Become a Sibilant in Satem Languages?

In Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic languages (which are conveniently all Satem languages), there is a sibilant or affricate sound in places where Centum languages usually have a velar consonant. It ...
Топор Перуна's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
142 views

What happened to Aham and its derivatives in Marathi?

The Sanskrit first person pronoun अहम् (Romanized: Aham) can be found in Maharashtri Prakrit as 𑀅𑀳𑀁 (ahaṃ), 𑀅𑀳𑀅𑀁 (ahaaṃ), 𑀳𑀁 (haṃ). It is even present in some languages derivative of ...
Mr Jangoon's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
158 views

proto-Indo-European root for the modern 'comma' and for 'hatchet'

I am told the proto-Indo-European root for the modern 'comma' is 'kop', and that is the root for 'hatchet' or 'axe' as well. True?
The ClearVoice's user avatar
-2 votes
1 answer
211 views

Why is Ural-Altaic controversial, but Indo-European isn't?

There is no direct record of Proto-Indo-European and there's barely any non-hypothetical evidence of Proto-Indo-Europeans. Why is Indo-European considered a language family while Ural-Altaic isn't, ...
Backstauber's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
126 views

Is PIE weyh₁ (to hunt, persecute) somehow related to PIE weyk (to separate, to select for sacrifice)

I am amateurishly passionate about etymologies (especially of my native Romanian) but more seriously interested in the anthropological theories of René Girard and Walter Burkert, which both ...
cipricus's user avatar
  • 656
2 votes
0 answers
128 views

Common origin of PIE feminine and collective plural and semantic implications

It is generally believed that the neuter nominative-accusative plural and feminine singular in PIE both originate in a common *-h2 suffix which originally marked collective, although recent works tend ...
Erithacus Rubecula's user avatar
3 votes
0 answers
76 views

Can you provide a cheat-sheet for turning Proto-Indo-European dictionaries from the older style into laryngeal notation?

Much of the resources I have for Proto-Indo-European itself (not etymological dictionaries for other languages) either use Laryngeal notation but are limited in scope (like Wiktionary) or are written ...
Oron61's user avatar
  • 31
0 votes
0 answers
135 views

Have I actually found something or is this just a 100+ coincidence cognates? indo-european, sino-tibetan, austroneisian, japanese, korean

I like comparing languages on my free time and found that Eurasian languages have a lot in common and I couldn't quite place my finger on it but the languages just seemed similar. One time I compared ...
that touhou nerd's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
267 views

Why does Proto-Indo-Aryan *ẓ seem to have different outcomes despite sharing the same phonological context?

It is well known that Proto-Indo-Aryan *s had an allophone *z in voiced contexts. Due to some phonetic changes (i.e. RUKI law and the shift *śt > ṣṭ), they both could undergo retroflexion, thus ...
Tochtli's user avatar
  • 680
0 votes
2 answers
318 views

Apparent sound crespondences between Eurasian, Trans-New-Guinean, Pama-Nyungan and Burushaski

It seems to me that there can be regular sound correspondences between Eurasian, Trans-New-Guinean, Pama-Nyungan and Burushaski. I would call the hypthetical proto-language of these "proto-mitian&...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
-1 votes
3 answers
425 views

If Hebrew is not related to Slavic, why there are apparent sound correspondences?

We have hebrew: šeš; russian: šestʹ; ukrainian: šistʹ; latin: six; english: six; hebrew: yeš; russian: yestʹ; ukrainian: ye, isnuye; latin: est; english: is; hebrew: ze; russian: se; ukrainian: сe [...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608
14 votes
2 answers
2k views

Derivation of the Indo-European lemma *bʰréh₂tēr ‘brother’

According to Wiktionary, the word “brother” is traced back to the reconstructed Indo-European lemma *bʰréh₂tēr with the same meaning. It seems to be structurally similar to other kinship terms, such ...
Lypyrhythm's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
311 views

Limits of historical linguistic reconstruction

It is a well-known and widely repeated fact that the linguistic reconstruction associated with the comparative method is no longer effective for large temporal depths (informally estimated to be ...
Davius's user avatar
  • 540
0 votes
1 answer
77 views

Why does PIE *weydtos give PGmc wīsaz not wīssaz?

Why does PIE *weydtos give PGmc wīsaz not wīssaz? compare Pgmc *stassiz, *gawissiz, *kwissiz
John's user avatar
  • 53
2 votes
1 answer
107 views

Why does Proto-Slavic first-person singular present form have nasalized o-sound?

Why does Proto-Slavic first-person singular present form have nasalized o-sound (ǫ) while PIE have longed o-sound?
John's user avatar
  • 53
-3 votes
1 answer
165 views

Which PIE participle corresponds to PGmc past participle?

Which PIE participle (active/middle/passive voice) corresponds to PGmc past participle?
John's user avatar
  • 53
0 votes
1 answer
189 views

Are "brat" and "frater" cognates?

Both the Slavic brat (Брат) and the Latin frater mean brother. Are they cognates? Or is their phonetic "proximity" a red herring? Related: How were “bratrъ/bratъ” and “sestra” formed in ...
Rodrigo de Azevedo's user avatar
-5 votes
1 answer
82 views

Are "comma" names in IE languages somehow related with yarn?

The Russian name of "comma" is "запятая zapjatája" which is cognate to english "to spin"(a yarn) The Russian name of "full stop" is "точка tóčka" ...
Peter's user avatar
  • 19
-1 votes
1 answer
75 views

Why Does PGmc *smalaz (from PIE *(s)mal-) have "a" (not "o")?

Why Does PGmc *smalaz (from PIE *(s)mal-) have "a" (not "o")?
Фёдор Любов's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
905 views

Were Iranian languages originally separated and more related to Slavic?

Iranian languages and Slavic languages have some similarities, such as the merger of aspirated sounds into unaspirated sounds, and the development of the consonant /z/. Historically, the settlements ...
Fatyanovo2022's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
135 views

Latin -vus/-uus and PIE -wos

What is the Proto-Indo-European reconstruction, if there is one, of the Latin suffixes -tivus (many examples) and -vus/-uus/-ivus (arvus, residuus, cadivus)? I read in a non-reliable source once that ...
user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
409 views

Phonological Development from PIE to Greek

I found the following phonological development (from PIE to Greek) patterns very interesting. *kw>t / __ {e, i} (e.g., *penkwe- > πέντε) *gw>d / __ e (*gwelbhu- > δελψύς) *gwh>th / ...
Chickly's user avatar
  • 125
6 votes
2 answers
623 views

What language branch of PIE does Kartvelian belong to? (Georgian language)

I know little about language, so I would like to preface that this question may appear disjointed. I have been listening to some wonderful Georgian folk music and have been trying to relate it to any ...
tab_philomath's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
418 views

Is there a question about the number of cases in Proto-Indo-European?

I've found this quote in what appears to be the Usenet sci.lang FAQ page: Earlier historical linguists cheerfully reconstructed eight cases for PIE, on the model of Sanskrit; but the IE languages ...
zale's user avatar
  • 223
0 votes
1 answer
244 views

Besides Proto-Indoeuropean, what would be the list of the 10 most acurately reconstructed Proto-languages?

Proto-Indoeuropean language (p-IE) has been the subject of study for more than 200 years, and a great deal of work has been published has been written about p-IE reconstruction. In addition, there are ...
Davius's user avatar
  • 540
0 votes
2 answers
355 views

Is there a reason germanic languages are more different from other PIE languages?

I apoligize that this question is not very formalized. Maybe the assumption in the question is wrong. I am asking because looking at latin, greek and sanskrit, these languages seem quite similar to ...
hmmmmmmm's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
197 views

What is the specific sound law that describes the change from Proto-Indo-European "*h₂éǵros" to Latin "ager"?

Is there a rule for the movement of the "r" to the end of the word? Or is it moreso that there was some kind of intrusive "e" that separated the "-gr-" to form "-ger&...
DecarbonatedOdes's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
146 views

Looking up PIE roots, converting between conventions and reconstructions, e.g., h1ueld <-> gheldh

My basic goal is to look up a Greek word and be able to find cognates in other languages that will help me to memorize its meaning. A technique that often works is to look up the Greek word on English ...
user35623's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
169 views

Is there a rule which accounts for a d in PIE becoming a b in Latin?

According to Wikitionary, the Latin word verb is derived from the Proto-Indo-European word *werdʰh₁om which is the etonym of the English word word and the German wort. I am familiar with Grimm's Law ...
Reb Chaim HaQoton's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
155 views

On the Epistemology of Comparative and Historical linguistics [closed]

I have asked a few questions before relating to PIE, proto-languages theory and the comparative method. As these are technical areas I am unfamiliar with but thanks to some previous answers I am ...
Linguist Enthusiast's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
134 views

Are PIE *yóh₁r̥ "spring, summer" and Proto-Turkic *yāŕ "spring, summer" cognates?

In Turkic it seems to be related to the word for "half" (yarım in modern Turkish). The semantic development looks more likely into the direction half->spring rather than the opposite.
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,608

1
2 3 4 5 6