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Questions tagged [romance-languages]

Branch of the Indo-European language family including all languages descended from Latin, such as French, Spanish and Italian.

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Are Romance languages really easier to learn than Germanic ones for English native speakers? If so, why? [closed]

Apparently some English speakers find Romance languages easier to learn than Germanic languages. Considering that English is itself a Germanic language, shouldn't the opposite be true?
POpKAS's user avatar
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1 answer
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Romance dialects : sound-to-spelling correspondance?

Romance languages differ greatly in between dialects. What are exemples of Romance languages that have the same writing system, but are written phonetically, with differences between dialects?
Raggi_2009's user avatar
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Is there a writing norm in Occitan in which [y] is written as <ü> and [u] as <u>?

Maybe also [y] as <ù> or [u] as <ò>?
Raggi_2009's user avatar
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Hypothetical ancestry and evolution of PGmc *auziwandliaz

This is cross-posted from r/asklinguistics, with influence from Wiktionary's Tea Room. So I'm bundling up three questions regarding the PGmc. proper noun *Auziwandilaz. First: The /w/ in the ...
user45141's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
273 views

Are there Romance parallel descendants to Italian "cicalare" and Romanian "cicăli(re)"?

I am looking for the etymology of the Romanian verb a cicăli (to make reproaches repeatedly, to nag), which is reported of unknown origin, and I have found an almost identical word in Italian: ...
cipricus's user avatar
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Timeline of future/conditional in Latin and Romance languages

I'm not a linguist - just a linguistics enthusiast - so apologies in advance if this is a stupid question. I am fascinated by the concept of grammaticalization, and I had heard that the future and ...
meldefon's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
177 views

Why does the "passat perifràstic" use "anar" as an auxiliary?

In all other romance languages, to go + infinitive means that the action will happen in a near future, which makes sense intuitively, because metaphorically, we move toward an event which has not ...
Boiethios's user avatar
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Could the Romanian gând/gândi (thought/think) be ultimately of Latin and/or Albanian origin?

A gândi is in modern Romanian the common/main form of the verb "to think", based on the noun gând ("thought"). It is considered of Hungarian origin, from "gond". I don't ...
cipricus's user avatar
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1 answer
243 views

Why do Spanish words change meaning when put in a sentence? [closed]

The word "ponga" means "I put" but when put in this sentence: Que solo la mire de lejito y se ponga asi" is "That he only looks at her from afar and gets like this" &...
Orionixe's user avatar
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1 answer
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How has the standardization of the Friulian language made the language easier to learn?

I read that, the standardized version of Friulian was made to make learning it simple. However, did it really make the language simpler? Are there still variations in the pronunciation of letters like ...
Akshat Goswami's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
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Simplicity of the verb in Germanic languages

English and German have only two tenses (the present and the past) that are formed by inflection, all the others are formed using helping verbs, as is the conditional mood. In the Romance languages ...
Neandertal's user avatar
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1 answer
140 views

Auxilary verb alternation in analytic perfect for French/Italian and German languages [duplicate]

French/Italian and German have a composite past tense (passé composé/passato prossimo/Perfekt) that is formed using either auxiliary verb to be (être/essere/sein) or auxiliary verb to have (avoir/...
Roger V.'s user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
333 views

When did people realize French has its root in Latin?

By investigating into historical documents like Oaths of Strasbourg and applying the comparative method, modern linguists are able to know French is a Romance language. When the components of ...
jywu's user avatar
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Is there a Slavic equivalent of the Greek and Latin semantic transfer from "chest/vault" to "treasure", like θησαυρός/thesaurus?

I was looking at the etymology of the Romanian word comoară ("treasure", "hoard", "pile of precious things") and it seems based on the widespread Slavic form komora, ...
cipricus's user avatar
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3 answers
378 views

Can it be that the etymology of the Balkan root for "tickle" stretches as far as Korean?

Some context first: I am interested in the etymology of the Romanian word gâdila/gîdila ("to tickle; the â/î variation is only graphical: it's /ɨ/, the close central unrounded vowel which in ...
cipricus's user avatar
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2 answers
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Conjugation stem changes in Portuguese

Currently, I am learning Portuguese. I have some knowledge of Spanish as well. The biggest difference in conjugation (indicative present tense) that I have found between Spanish and Portuguese is that ...
Yan Zhuang's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
459 views

How did ⟨x⟩ become /ʃ/ in Iberian Romance?

In Latin, ⟨x⟩ stood for /ks/. I'm a native Portuguese speaker and nowadays in my language this letter can also have the sounds /gz/, /s/, /z/ and /ʃ/. It seems relatively straightforward for me that /...
Mutoh's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
281 views

Why are telling and counting related in many languages?

In many languages, verbs for telling a story are based on or related to verbs for counting. There are (at least) three groups of such verbs: English "recount", French "conter" and ...
joriki's user avatar
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1 answer
310 views

Which is the origin of Romanian /h/?

According to Wikipedia, Romanian has [...] the glottal fricative /h/. You can hear it, for instance, in the Romanian word arhaic. This cannot be of Latin origin because, as explained in the book La ...
Charo's user avatar
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What is the name of the thing that the tongue does on the syllable pri in Classical Latin, Spanish, Italian, and Brazilian Portuguese? [duplicate]

What is the name of the thing that the tongue does on the syllable pri in Classical Latin, Spanish, Italian, Brazilian Portuguese, and possibility other Romance languages? Since Classical Latin has ...
Ana Maria's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
550 views

What is the name of the category for the vibrations that the tongue does in linguistics?

There are guttural sounds such as the French R so I'm guessing that there is name for the category of speech sound in which the tongue vibrates! For example, in the words pater, et rubente http://www....
Ana Maria's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
122 views

Is "nea" <- "*nivis" proof that metaphonic diphthongisation occured in Romanian before the loss of intervocalic "v"?

The metaphonic diphthongisation phenomenon is said to have occurred between the 6th and 8th century. But it must have happened before the loss of intervocalic "v", though I have only one ...
SarruKen's user avatar
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2 votes
4 answers
392 views

Why words in many romance languages don't have more than one part of speech, unlike words in English

I have recently just realized that in English, sometimes the same word will have different part of speech depends on the way you pronounce it. For example, record can be a noun or a verb depends on ...
Yan Zhuang's user avatar
-1 votes
1 answer
657 views

Pronunciation of "ll" in the Romance languages

I have noticed that all the Romance languages (Spanish, Galician, Catalan, Portuguese, Romanian, Italian, and French) usually pronounce the "ll" like the "y" in "yacht". ...
Arunabh's user avatar
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8 votes
1 answer
289 views

Why are French nouns in -eur feminine when their latin origin in -or is masculine?

The suffix -eur in modern French typically gives feminine nouns: erreur, ferveur, torpeur, fureur. (Confusingly there's also -(a)teur which gives masculine nouns, but it seems etymologically separate)....
zale's user avatar
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2 answers
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How did Latin "aqua" became Sardinian "abba" and Romanian "apă"?

The way I believe it happened was by the change of "w" into "v" and the fall of the velar "k". Furthermore, betacism caused the change of "v" to "b" ...
SarruKen's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
312 views

Which Romance languages have three verbs for, and preserved the differences between, Latin's esse, sedere, stare?

Yoïn van Spijk's diagram substantiates that French, Italian, Portuguese, and Spanish merged at least two of Latin's esse, sedere, stare. Are there any Romance languages which still feature direct ...
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1 vote
1 answer
226 views

How could Vulgar Latin divide in so many branches in the Balkans in a such small timespan?

From the literature I've read ( Al.Rosetti History of Romanian for example ) it looks like we can talk about Vulgar Latin until the 4th or 5th century in the Balkans, and further than that many ...
SarruKen's user avatar
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36 votes
3 answers
7k views

Why is the word "war" in Romance languages predominantly of Germanic origin instead of Latin?

I wonder why in all Romance languages the word "war" ("guerra", with their multiple intonations) is a term that comes from Germanic languages, and that no modern language resembles ...
Daniel Castro's user avatar
13 votes
3 answers
1k views

Is there a form descending from Latin genitive plural somewhere in modern Romance languages?

The Latin genitive plurals in -rum are very noticeable in the paradigm. Be it first declension in -ārum, second in -ōrum, or fifth in -ērum, they are heavyweight, attract accent and basicall stand out ...
Alexander Z.'s user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
545 views

Why are native English speakers convinced that English language is a Romance language? [closed]

Most people I've know so far in the USA are always saying that learning Latin would be really easy because, since English comes from Latin, it cannot be a hard thing to do, and they really get shocked ...
Pablo Velasco's user avatar
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0 answers
1k views

Why does French use diminutive suffixes differently from other Romance languages?

I'm a native French speaker, and I noticed that for a lot of masculine objects, we use the suffix -ette to designate a smaller version of it, which turns it into a feminine word. Here are a few ...
Reyedy's user avatar
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5 votes
0 answers
140 views

The letter <u> in Provençal: when is it [y] and when is it [œ]?

In most dialects of Occitan, the letter <u> is pronounced [y] generally. However, in Provençal it appears to be pronounced [œ] by some speakers some of the time. This wikipedia article states (...
S.T. Veje's user avatar
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5 votes
0 answers
152 views

Etymology of initial "g-" in Sicilian "giurana" (frog)

Most Romance words for "frog" derive from Latin rana (e.g. es. rana, it. rana, pt. rã. See also va. renoc ("toad")). However, an unexpected initial g- appears in the cognates of several Gallo-: fr. ...
iacobo's user avatar
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1 vote
3 answers
640 views

Definite/indefinite articles vs. inflections

While some languages have definite/indefinite articles (a/an/the in English, le/la/les and un/une/des in French), others don't (Russian, Latin). In this connection I have a few questions: Chicken or ...
Roger V.'s user avatar
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5 votes
2 answers
285 views

Adjective position in Provençal (Occitan)

Can anyone tell me the rules for adjective position in Provençal? I know that, like most other Romance languages, most adjectives go after the noun, with some exceptions. But I can't find the exact ...
S.T. Veje's user avatar
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6 votes
1 answer
503 views

Why don't modern Romance languages have the verb "to stand"?

I noticed that modern Romance languages don't have a specific word for the verb "to stand", or - you could say - don't consider the notion of standing to be a verb. For example, in Spanish - you can ...
Maverick Meerkat's user avatar
11 votes
1 answer
332 views

What is the origin of the "redundant" pronouns in the Venetian language?

From the examples taken from Wikipedia: • Venetian: (Ti) te jèra onto or even Ti te jèri/xeri onto (lit. "(You) you were dirty"). • Venetian: El can el jèra onto (lit. "The dog he was dirty"). It ...
Ergative Man's user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
655 views

How did Latin drop noun declension?

Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments? A side question: ...
culebrón's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
119 views

Does a scientific methodology exist for evaluating bilingual dictionaries?

I recently reread What's the difference between the various context dictionaries available for Spanish (e.g., Tatoeba, Reverso, Linguee, …)?. The accepted answer is excellent. But it got me ...
aparente001's user avatar
39 votes
5 answers
9k views

Why do the Romance languages use definite articles, when Latin doesn't?

Classical Latin, as I understand things, barely has a definite article at all: ille is the nearest equivalent, and even this word is closer to English that than the. But Spanish, French and Italian ...
Tom Hosker's user avatar
3 votes
0 answers
115 views

(proto-)Germanic evidence for Late Latin vowel length

I would like to find a list of borrowings illustrating the reflexes in (proto-)Germanic of Latin long and short vowels. In particular I would like to find substantiation to the standard claim that it ...
Unbrutal_Russian's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
275 views

What can we say about Classical Nahuatl <z>?

Nahuatl has two sibilant fricatives, now pronounced something like [s] and [ʃ]. The standard orthography was developed by Spanish colonizers, who wrote /ʃ/ as x, and /s/ as c before a front vowel, z ...
Draconis's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
362 views

Historical morphology of Italian nouns from Latin 3rd declension

Italian is commonly analysed as inheriting the nominative forms of nouns from Vulgar Latin, instead of the accusative ones. But what happened to 3rd declension nouns? It looks like for the majority ...
Rethliopuks's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
274 views

Phonetic similarity between *s* and *j*

I've recently discovered that Latin s at the end of words became the palatal approximant j in Italian. I remember reading that this process is also observed in some Occitan dialects,so it cannot be ...
X30Marco's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
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Did Romance languages evolve in Pannonia?

As a sister question of Did Romance languages evolve in North Africa?, I would like to ask what was the situation in Pannonia was there a Pannonian Romance Language and what research is there to it's ...
Alternative Transport's user avatar
9 votes
4 answers
10k views

Why are French, Italian, Spanish etc. listed as SVO languages?

In this Wikipedia article, French, Italian and Spanish are listed as SVO languages, along with English and Chinese. (However, Latin is listed as SOV.) I am highly confused about such statement. In ...
iBug's user avatar
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7 votes
4 answers
3k views

Which Romance Language is the least similar to Latin?

People state that Romanian is closest in some aspects (grammar mainly), and that to learn a romance language studying latin may give you a leg up (which in my opinion just study the language), but for ...
Michael Valentin's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
3k views

Why has the neuter gender disappeared from almost all the modern Romance languages?

Why has the neuter gender disappeared from almost all the modern Romance languages? It was completely common in Latin. And when exactly did this happen? Did it happen in Latin itself, or only after ...
Honza Zidek's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
945 views

How does Metathesis work?

How does it happen? What motivated latin "parabola" to change into Spanish "palabra" and why does english "ask" is often changed to "aks"?
Ergative Man's user avatar
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