Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
5 votes
4 answers
1k views

Why did English "man" and Latin "homo" take both the senses "gender-neutral human" and "male adult"?

Why did English "man" and Latin "homo" take both the sense "gender-neutral human" and "male adult"? According to etymonline.com, English "man", and incidentally Latin "homo" (which originally meant "...
Vun-Hugh Vaw's user avatar