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The patterns of changing endings in inflecting languages which cover multiple properties of a word such as tense, mood, person, number, case, etc. This general term covers conjugation of verbs and declension of nouns and adjectives.
8
votes
Accepted
Were/are there any languages that decline(d) articles but not nouns?
I think French is very close to what you are looking for. Most nouns are pronounced identically in the singular and plural (though the plural is mostly still written with a silent “s”), but number and …
7
votes
Accepted
How are foreign terms incorporated into the Arabic system of vowel alternation?
Loan words in Arabic are generally borrowed in something approaching their original form, but they are often perceived as being built around a three or four-letter root, from which purely Arabic deriv …
2
votes
Order of derivational and inflectional affixes
The Wikipedia “formula” is indeed highly problematic in so far as it assumes that derivation and inflection are effected solely by suffixation, which is manifestly not true in many languages. …
1
vote
Grammatical term for inflectable conjunctions as used in the Arabic language(s)
In Arabic grammar this is called "'inna and its sisters". These encompass a set of particles that are followed by a noun in the accusative case, or by the accusative forms of suffixed pronouns.
2
votes
Examples of Umlaut in a living language
In German, umlaut is admittedly no longer productive, but it is still very much in evidence in words like Mann > Männer, Kuh > Kühe, and many more.
3
votes
The suffix -er in English: Why is this derivational?
I am not convinced that either one of these answers in correct. Most Indo-European languages have suffixes that make verbs into participles (i.e. adjectives), like English go > going, Latin amo > aman …
4
votes
How did the complexities of Arabic cardinals arise?
The system of gender polarity is broadly identical in all ancient Semitic languages, such as Akkadian, Hebrew, Aramaic and Geez. It is not an Arabic innovation. The origin of it is shrouded in the pre …
6
votes
Are there any languages besides Japanese which are both inflecting/agglutinating and do not ...
Just for a beginning: ancient Greek and Latin did not indicate word boundaries. All the letters are evenly spaced. Sanskrit separates only at the end of a verse.
3
votes
How is the the adjective in a definite noun phrase different from a nondefinite one in Germa...
The wikipedia article is (as often) badly formulated. "In the Germanic languages" is wrong. "In (some) Germanic languages" would be all right.
6
votes
Is there some intrinsic relationship between the nominative plural and genitive singular?
I am not sure about “intrinsic”. It is, however, main-stream Indo-Europeanist theory that the suffix * -es marks both the genitive singular and the nominative plural m/f in proto-Indo-European. Though …