18 votes

Which non-Indoeuropean languages have noun-adjective agreement?

Egyptian and many of the older Semitic languages put a /t/ on feminine nouns and any adjectives modifying them, and many also mark number (singular, dual, plural) on both. A few of these languages (e....
Draconis's user avatar
  • 65.2k
15 votes

Which non-Indoeuropean languages have noun-adjective agreement?

In the Atlantic-Congo languages that have noun classes, and that is most of them, adjectives agree in the class with the noun they modify. In the Bantu subfamily, the adjectives agrees by receiving ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
11 votes

What is the concept of verb agreement with passive-active level in Hebrew?

Although I haven't heard of the term "degrees of passive/active" before, they are almost certainly talking about the verbal stems. This is a concept indeed alien to Western European (or broader) but ...
Keelan's user avatar
  • 4,136
8 votes

Which non-Indoeuropean languages have noun-adjective agreement?

In Finnish, adjectives agree with the nouns they modify in terms of case and number.
qrsngky's user avatar
  • 181
6 votes
Accepted

Examples of languages that mark both nouns and adjectives for possessor

This seems to be very rare, but Tundra Nenets has been reported as an example, with optional marking of this kind. (møny) | serako(-myi) | te-myi 1SG | white-1SG | reindeer-1SG "my white ...
Alazon's user avatar
  • 825
5 votes

What is the boundary of morphologically decided gender assignment and the phenomenon like a/an-distinction in English from a synchronic perspective?

Sumelic's answer is entirely correct, and goes into quite a lot of detail. But there's also a much simpler answer to this specific question: the article doesn't specifically depend on any feature of ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 65.2k
5 votes
Accepted

What is the boundary of morphologically decided gender assignment and the phenomenon like a/an-distinction in English from a synchronic perspective?

Gender is, as mentioned in your first quote, a system of agreement based on noun classes. Gender systems always have a semantic component (or in other words, there is a "semantic core" to at ...
brass tacks's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

What factors determine the numeral coming to numbers such as -1, 0, 0.5, 100% in a language which has and only has contrast in singular and plural?

As pointed out by Michaelyus in a comment, this is covered for two languages (English and French) in the 2003 paper On the Semantic Range of the Plural by Wayne P. Lawrence. Briefly, English and ...
abarnert's user avatar
  • 2,625
4 votes
Accepted

Are there any languages where possessive nouns have to agree with the head noun?

This is possible, and it is my understanding that this phenomenon is called "Suffixaufnahme". One of the most well-known examples seems to be Old Georgian. "Suffixaufnahme", by Marcus Kracht, gives ...
brass tacks's user avatar
4 votes

In "half of the slices were eaten", how does the plurality of "slices" get projected past the preposition "of"?

In my opinion, “Slices” is not the head. “Half” is the head and is plural here because it semantically refers to multiple things. Compare “Half were eaten” and “One of the slices was eaten.” I found a ...
brass tacks's user avatar
3 votes

Which non-Indoeuropean languages have noun-adjective agreement?

In Burushaski, adjectives also agree in class/gender with the noun they modify.
earlyinthemorning's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

Origin of the habitual tense in Swahili

This is touched on in §3.3 of Nurse & Hinnebusch Swahili and Sabaki. The elements on which it is founded are "very old", perhaps in proto-Bantu. As a habitual morpheme, the form is ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83k
3 votes
Accepted

Subject-verb number agreement with complex subject

For one thing, some languages apparently do not have a way to coordinate two noun phrases on an equal level (or at least, no documented way). See this question: What is the difference between AND and ...
brass tacks's user avatar
2 votes

Numeral-noun number agreement - how popular it is

This feature or lack thereof is common enough across language families. Besides Hungarian, Turkish and Georgian, it also occurs in Armenian, Persian and apparently Hindi, which are of course Indo-...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
2 votes

How is T-subject agreement realized on a verb in minimalist syntax?

The mechanism of Agree(ment) has been redefined since Chomsky 1995. Since Chomsky 2000, 2001, it does not rely on Spec-Head agreement anymore. Regarding the relation between the subject and V, if ...
Daniel's user avatar
  • 326
2 votes

Words being marked for agreement, and prepared speech

Of course there is lot of linguistic research on how speakers present information in sentences. To mention just two fields here, Information structure or linguistic topology is about the order of ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
2 votes

What's the gender of "nice" in "Mary is a nice person"?

I assume your question is not why the author of a grammar would state a fact about a language when no known languages act contrarily, it is whether any languages act contrarily. I don't know why you ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83k
2 votes

What's the gender of "nice" in "Mary is a nice person"?

I agree that possibly in no language it works the other way, but consider the following. In Russian there are nouns of common gender. This means they can be masculine or feminine depending on the ...
Anixx's user avatar
  • 6,647
2 votes

Which non-Indoeuropean languages have noun-adjective agreement?

There is a noun-adjective agreement in Georgian (for consonnant endings), in Chechen (class agreement), in Finnish, in Estonian, in Arabic, in Hebrew...
Sebastolaf Gravberg's user avatar
2 votes

What factors determine the numeral coming to numbers such as -1, 0, 0.5, 100% in a language which has and only has contrast in singular and plural?

The Unicode Consortium has spent some time documenting some of the most common plural rules for over 200 languages: http://www.unicode.org/cldr/charts/latest/supplemental/language_plural_rules.html ...
Nicolas Bouvrette's user avatar
1 vote

Government versus Agreement

The main thing is that government means that one controls the other, a sort of "If () then ()" relationship, whereas with agreement both arguments can be changed to produce a grammatical ...
Henery Johnson's user avatar
1 vote

Why is participial clause tenseless?

Who are these linguists? What language are they talking about? In Sanskrit, Greek, Latin (to name but a few) participles have tense and agree with their antecedent in gender and number.
fdb's user avatar
  • 24.1k
1 vote

"Who lives there" vs "Who live there?"

(Note: the relative "who" and the interrogative "who" have rather different grammatical properties. When I talk about the word "who" in this answer, I'm specifically talking about the interrogative.) ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 65.2k
1 vote

What languages have extraction markers?

As I understand it, you're asking about a specific extraction marker that occurs always and only when a nominal is extracted, and in clause chains it appears in each clause. As far as I know, this ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83k
1 vote

Numeral-noun number agreement - how popular it is

In most Berber languages (In Riffian, a numeral does not agree with a noun), agreement for numerals concerns the number and the gender. The noun agrees in number with the numeral and, inversely, the ...
amegnunsen's user avatar
  • 1,527
1 vote

How do we explain the fact that agreement comes from the object with 'there'?

The comments reflect the complexity of "there" subjects, and I'm fairly certain that jlawler can fill us in on previous work on the topic. I will just long-comment on data problems. First, 'there' can ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83k
1 vote

How do we explain the fact that agreement comes from the object with 'there'?

'The man' in your sentence is not an object, since 'to be' cannot have objects at all, neither direct objects, nor indirect ones. In your sentence 'the man' is the subject of the sentence, and, ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
1 vote

Plural-marking and numerals

Pluralising after a number is an arial feature, not necessarily a question of language family. For example, Armenian, Georgian, Persian and Turkish do not mark after a number (or after the word "many/...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
1 vote

Their class has more singers than (we/us) -- possible syntactical derivations?

The comparison is with their class and not with them; therefore, the parallel for comparison is not ourselves but rather our class. The correct finish, then, is "ours": "Their class has more singers ...
LLapp's user avatar
  • 11

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