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8 votes
Accepted

What was Anatolian language during the Neolithic era according to Kurgan hypothesis proponents?

It's hard to say what the situation would have been as far back as 4500 BCE, because that's well before the invention of writing. The best evidence we have for how language worked back then comes from ...
Draconis's user avatar
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7 votes
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What was the function of the Lycian spelling m̃m and ñn

Kloekhorst 2008 writes the following: "the difference between /n/ vs. /nn/ and /m/ vs. /mm/ is only relevant in initial and intervocalic position. In all other cases the ‘geminate’ spellings ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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5 votes
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Anatolian 'good': Indo-European or not?

IE *h1(e)su- accounts reasonably well for ἐύς m, ἐύ n., as well as for Skt. su- and for Hitt. āššu-. The final -ς of ἐύς is simply the case ending for the nom. s. The Luvian etc. forms look more like ...
fdb's user avatar
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3 votes
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What happened to "accented velars" in Anatolian?

Melchert argues that the "plain velars" and "accented velars" remained distinct in Proto-Anatolian, because they show different reflexes in Luvian: *k becomes Luvian k, while *ḱ becomes Luvian z. He ...
Draconis's user avatar
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3 votes

What happened to "accented velars" in Anatolian?

Whether you believe that *k and *ḱ merged to a single phoneme in Anatolian, or that *k split into *k and *ḱ after the separation of Anatolian from IE - in both cases you will get the same result.
fdb's user avatar
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