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6 votes

Why did auxiliary verbs in Kazakh got completely merged into one word in Turkish?

I don't think that Turkish -yor is the result of merging jatir to the verb. Turkish language belongs to Oghuz branch which has significant differences from Kipchak branch. Constructs similar to ...
Tuňuquq's user avatar
  • 257
5 votes

Why did auxiliary verbs in Kazakh got completely merged into one word in Turkish?

The why? question is not answerable from a linguistic point of view, it just happened so. But there is a general phenomenon across languages named grammaticalization that describes the fate of words ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
5 votes
Accepted

What is the meaning difference between have+V versus bare V?

There's lots of work on the semantics of the English perfect constructions. A recentish (2002) paper by Kiparsky which could get you started is here.
TKR's user avatar
  • 10.9k
4 votes

What is the difference between lexical verb and copular verb?

I think a few issues need to be cleared up first. Firstly, the first source you mentioned is an ESL source rather than a linguistics source. If you'd like to learn more about linguistics, I'd suggest ...
WavesWashSands's user avatar
4 votes

What is the meaning difference between have+V versus bare V?

The classic statement of the meanings of the perfect construction is McCawley, “Tense and time reference in English”, in Langendoen & Fillmore, Studies in linguistic semantics, 1971. (McCawley ...
StoneyB on hiatus's user avatar
3 votes

Do auxiliary verbs always express different aspect/mood/tense?

No, auxiliary verbs don't always express something other than simple indicative. Yes, there are cases where a sentence with an auxiliary verb is in the simple indicative. For instance, "Hal is a ...
Greg Lee's user avatar
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3 votes
Accepted

Do auxiliary verbs always express different aspect/mood/tense?

No, the use of auxiliaries is not directly linked to aspect, mood or tense in the first place. This may be so in some or many cases by coincidence when morphological or syntactic marking is not ...
Natalie Clarius's user avatar
3 votes

Pattern of use of modal verbs across languages

I would like to know basically a cheat sheet of their patterns across languages. This is the wrong level to look for typological patterns. We should not expect to see large patterns of auxiliary ...
curiousdannii's user avatar
  • 6,218
3 votes

Are auxiliaries not lexical?

It's just terminology in this case: a lexical verb is a verb that is not an auxiliary. By most definitions, auxiliaries (ones like "be" and "have", not "will" and "...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67.1k
3 votes

List of Lexical and Auxiliary verbs

This question might be a better fit on EL&U or ELL. However, I'd like to provide a different answer to the one already posted here. The class of auxiliary verbs in English is a closed class of ...
Araucaria - him's user avatar
3 votes

List of Lexical and Auxiliary verbs

Whether a verb is lexical or auxiliary depends on context. The verbs which I would call auxiliary in the strictest sense are be, do, and have, when used in "he is running", "she doesn't ...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 67.1k
3 votes
Accepted

In X bar theory, is the first auxiliary the head of an interrogative clause and the remainder the complement?

The simple answer to the question is as follows: Yes, the complement of an auxiliary verb in a traditional X-bar-theoretic approach does view the entire string following the inverted auxiliary as the ...
Tim Osborne's user avatar
  • 5,757
2 votes
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Do all frameworks of syntax view the string following an inverted auxiliary verb in English as the complement of the auxiliary?

Most modern phrase structure grammars will assume that the string immediately after an inverted auxiliary is the complement of the auxiliary, as the question implies. This fact is largely due to the ...
Tim Osborne's user avatar
  • 5,757
1 vote
Accepted

Why did auxiliary verbs in Kazakh got completely merged into one word in Turkish?

Very complicated question: firstly, there no archaic/modern distinction within these language: both have modern literary tradition. But they can keep archaic features of sub-levels or even proto-...
T1nts's user avatar
  • 446
1 vote

In generative grammar, is the first auxiliary always the head of an interrogative clause?

Not always. In the Aspects model, there is no concept "head". In Burt's exposition, the auxiliary is moved into a node PreS which is a sister to the NP, Aux and VP.
user6726's user avatar
  • 83.2k
1 vote

Can the first auxiliary verb be the specifier of a VP in the X-Bar theory?

You are right that the auxiliary is merely a TAM carrier, it's a function word without any meaning of its own. It's however completely logical to take it to be the structural head of the "verb phrase" ...
Atamiri's user avatar
  • 2,590
1 vote
Accepted

Why is it that the wh-word as a subject in the spec position cannot raise over an auxiliary verb like 'did'?

First of all, it is not the case that "who" cannot raise over "did" in T (or more precisely - over the tense affix), because it does so when moving from Spec-VP to Spec-TP anyway (under the VP-...
syntaxfairy's user avatar
1 vote

Do auxiliary verbs always express different aspect/mood/tense?

A German counter-example is Er wird geschlagen where the auxilliary werden expresses the passive voice, but is clearly simple-indicative-present.
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar

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