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12

Actually, there are good chances that a Celtic language was spoken in the 6th century in the Iberian Peninsula, not the ones you would expect but a Brittonic one. We know for sure that a group of Britons settled in Galicia in the 6th century, when Galicia was the independent kingdom of the Suevi: a bishop of the Britons was present at the 2nd council of ...


8

This may sound weird, but it's not. Well, in fact, it is very weird indeed. –– With equal right one might say that Romania should correctly be called Wales. –– If that joke is lost on you, read the rest of this answer: there is nothing incorrect to observe. There is just a lot of culture and language evolution over quite a few centuries and thus a no ...


8

You have to a large degree answered the question yourself, really: clann is indeed a very early loan word. Like Common Celtic, Common Insular Celtic had no /p/, but it had /kʷ/. The Brythonic branch changed /kʷ/ to /p/ (keeping the labiality, losing the velarity) quite early on, whereas in the Goidelic branch, /kʷ/ merged with /k/ (retaining the velarity, ...


7

Proto-Celtic was spoken well before the foundation of Rome in 753BC; it is heavily associated with the Hallstatt culture which was developed by 800BC. Proto-Celtic branched out to several distinct languages early on, including Gaulish in France / Belgium (as early as 600BC) and Celtiberian in Spain. The Celts spread throughout Europe in the days of the ...


6

Long ago many words ended in sounds which were for some reason lost. It was those now lost sounds that triggered different kinds of assimilation and other consonant changes in the words that followed them. E.g.: Welsh bach [baχ] 'little', but merch fach [merχ vaχ] 'little girl': in Proto-Celtic 'girl' was *merkā, so the [b] of bach got between 2 vowels and ...


6

When a modern Romance language shows some influence of a Celtic language it replaced it is a consequence of language contact and not of common inheritance. It is generally hold that the Rhaeto-Romance languages (Romansch, Ladin, and Friulian) show the largest Celtic substrate influence.


4

It's probably not a substrate effect, but a phonetically caused deletion, seeing as the sound was not lost in all contexts but only in specific conditions. A substrate-based loss would presumably be due to Gaulish not possessing a sound equivalent to that written with Latin v, which may or may not have been the case (depending on what exactly that sound was ...


4

A quick look at Stair na Gaeilge yields this (in Kim McCone’s chapter An tSean-Gaeilge agus a réamhstair — “Old Irish and its prehistory”)… 21.2 … It can be seen that use is made of the suffix *-(i)yā to make abstract nouns in IE itself (e.g., Gr. phil-ó-s ‘beloved’, phil-ía ’fondness’). The -e (MW -ed) that descended from it was a common way of forming ...


4

Just to supplement jknappen's excellent answer, we don't see a lot of inherited vocabulary shared between Italic and Celtic, simply due to the timescales involved. When there are cognates between the two, they usually come all the way from PIE, or were loaned at a later point. The main evidence for Proto-Italo-Celtic comes from certain grammatical features ...


4

The languages were probably very close and most likely mutually intelligible at least to some degree, which is why we postulate the Italo-Celtic branch of IE languages. Of course neither of these language states are attested but what we reconstruct shows many similarities. Compare the declensions as listed by Wiki: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-...


3

The theory is that "soft mutation" is the result of intervocalic lenition. This paper on Celtic in general may help you to navigate the details of the branches of Celtic, plus gives references for earlier historical works (Thurneysen, Pedersen, Windisch), and this paper §2.2.2 for more focus on Welsh. The more-remote claim regarding Indo-European is that the ...


3

You could also just use a Gaulish dictionary. It's the earliest continental Celtic language we actually know a lot about. I'd suggest Xavier Delamarre's "Dictionnaire de la langue gauloise". It's not online, but an actual book.


2

Could these two words: stem from the same PIE root, and survived relatively unskathed have been borrowed one from the other, making one or both of the etymologies dubious have been borrowed from a non-IE language (perhaps in Shetland or other point of contact) into both Early Celtic and Old Norse Yes indeed! All three are plausible on the ...


2

A similar phenomenon to Irish eclipsis exists in Modern Greek, although more limited in terms of the number of consonants it applies to. According to Wikipedia's article on "Modern Greek Phonology": [when a word beginning with a voiceless stop follows] a number of grammatical words ending in /n/, most notably the negation particles δεν and μην and the ...


2

Why might the Latin -v- have been lost in French? Why were the Latin intervocalic -v- and -b- lost in Romanian as well? alleger from alleviare; neige from nivea; jeune from juvenis. Notice that in all these instances the -v- is intervocalic. So did Gaulish cause this loss? Technically, everything is possible, but, given the fact that Romanian has a ...


1

It seems that the topic of substrates in Europe has fallen into lack of interest, since the deaths of a number of German scholars. Conspicuously, the book by Fortson on IEan language and culture does not even spend a detailed word on this topic. The word "substrate" apparently occurs only twice in the whole book, just to mention they exist! I'm ...


1

I would argue for the possible connection with word "baron" actually. The word "baron" itself comes from Old French, which at the time preserved still some forms of declension and "baron" was the accusative/object/indirect case, while nominative/subject/direct was "ber", which itself had Germanic/Frankish origin in baro ("freeman").


1

The contact of Slavs with the Celtic people was very long ago, in the 4th - 2nd centuries BC, in the times when the Proto-Slavic language still existed, the few Slavic words that can be explained by that contact were borrowed into the Ptoto-Slavic. Because of this, it looks quite improbable that the long Celtic á of bár would give the Slavic o of болꙗринъ ...


1

At present, the recent findings of Lusitanian inscriptions confirm the bilingual character (indigenous - Latin) of the so called Lusitanian language. Thus, porcom, taurom, etc. are considered to be Latin loanwords: cp. callaecian mociô, tarvo, etc.. On the other hand, the famous Lusitanian /p/ is observed just now as a alternating form of /b/, consequence ...


1

To decide, whether the language was Celtic, we need to know about: Intervocalic lenition (which, according to Jaskuła, was one of the most probable characteristic of Celtic languages). Word order (which is specific for Continental Celtic and differs from e.g. Italic languages). The state of prepositions (if there were any). Case endings (if there were any). ...


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