New answers tagged

-2

The Quran. Penned 1400 years ago, typically Arabs memorize it word for word, and many people believe it has never changed. It's the reason why Arabic is one of the oldest languages spoken today and is probably the closest to how it existed 1000 years ago when names were being invented (when the convention for naming people was to name them after things). It'...


-1

I always thought this was because of the 99 Names (and attributes) of Allah, which I think are listed in the Quran.


6

As with many words in English, also a lot of proper names come from the Romans, which in turn served as a vector for Hebrew ("Michael"), Aramaic ("Thomas") and Greek ("Peter") names. Names like "Peter" probably are recognizable in the region of their origin, but not in England. There still are original English names as ...


23

Cross-culturally, names having transparent meanings is the norm. Europe, and the non-Arabic-speaking Muslim world are notable exceptions and in those cases religion is one of the big motivating factors When you have large religions with a strong scriptural tradition, people will often choose names from that scripture. If the language of that scripture is not ...


1

It’s largely an artifact of the evolution of the language itself, and to some extent the culture of the people who speak the language. Names tend to shift less over time than other aspects of a language because they’re inherently tied to the lifetime of a person and often get reused on a generational basis, so divergence from other aspects of the language is ...


20

First, it is not just black and white. Not all English names are opaque, there are transparent names like Hope, Faith, or Grace but also Rose that are current in English and American naming. And there are also some Arabic names like Ammar or Zaynab that are opaque. But it is true that the majority of English names are opaque and speakers of English are used ...


12

Part of the reason is that people with Muslim names tend to have a better knowledge of Arabic. But most people have very little knowledge of Old English, and don't know what "Harold" or "Alfred" derive from (owing to the much more substantial change in English over versus Arabic). There is no constant source of re-connection with the ...


3

Affricated realization of /t/ is characteristic of (certain varieties of) London speech (Cockney). Wells (1982: 31) writes: A common allophone of /t/ in a London accent is a heavily affricated [ts], thus [tsɑɪʔ ~ tsɑɪts] tight, [ˈpʰɑːtsi] party. To an American ear, as mentioned above, this evokes the stereotype of effeminacy, if the speaker is a man; but in ...


-4

Yes you are right. You only forgot finger with -r suffix like live liver, bite bitter.


2

Do you mean 'most' as an absolute number or as a percentage of world population? The other answers seem to interpret it as an absolute number so I will look at the percentage. The proportion of the world population that lives in China has varied from around 20% to around 40% from 400 BC until now (source wikipedia). English on the other hand only existed ...


13

This is an interesting question, though it really is a question of history or statistics, rather than linguistics. The "most spoken language in history" is certainly a modern language, just because the world population increased exponentially in the past few centuries. Most human languages last for a few hundred to a thousand or so years before it ...


2

The words Dutch, French, English, and Spanish are general adjectives which could refer to a person, clothing, language, architecture etc. There are some words that only refer to people, such as "Dutchman, Frenchman, Englishman" with -man, and Spaniard with -iard. There are a handful of other constructions with -man including Scotsman, Irishman, ...


3

If you’re using what I understand to be the ‘classic’ rhetorical terms, I think this is litotes: using a negative statement (‘not tall’) to convey an understated positive one (‘short’). This term is included on this Wikipedia page with many others: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glossary_of_rhetorical_terms (As an aside, I want to note the structure of your ...


1

Natural Language in NLP refers to the linguistic material naturally occurring in a text, whether that is words, phrases, sentences, etc. Since NLP is not specific to a given language and not bound to one particular unit of language, I would go with it being uncountable. The Language in NLP is likely closest to definition 8 in the link you provided.


2

In good boy, /ɡʊb bɔɪ/, we see that the last consonant of good has become a /b/. In isolation the last consonant of good would be a /d/. If we give these two phonemes their Voice Place Manner labels, /d/ would be a ᴠᴏɪᴄᴇᴅ ᴅᴇɴᴛᴀʟ ᴘʟᴏsɪᴠᴇ and /b/ would be a ᴠᴏɪᴄᴇᴅ ʙɪʟᴀʙɪᴀʟ ᴘʟᴏsɪᴠᴇ. So we can see that whilst the last consonant of good is still voiced and still ...


5

It is questionable whether there is such a thing as "assimilation of manner" in the same sense that there is assimilation of place. Assimilation of place traditionally refers to wholesale shift in POA as represented in the IPA charts, to t → p, p → k and so on: columns of cells identify a "place". "Manner" cross-classifies rows ...


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