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-1 votes

Scrambling in Languages like Latin

X isn't Latin has no meaning, unless you define Latin as somethin other than the single modern English morpheme. You could say zzzzwcfr or whatever is what an educated Castillilian %-century trader ...
1 vote

Languages that have no objective vs. subjective genitive ambiguity

English has two main types of genitive construction, the "Saxon genitive" (John's) and the "prepositional genitive" (of John). When they're used together, the Saxon genitive is ...
  • 53.9k
2 votes
Accepted

Possible Sanskrit word "pas" as declension case

Sanskrit has two homophonic verbal roots pā, one meaning “to protect”, the other “to drink”. In both meanings they can occur as the second element of noun+verb compounds like nŗ-pa- “protecting men” ...
  • 22.7k
2 votes

Possible Sanskrit word "pas" as declension case

In general, the nominative singular ending in Sanskrit is -ḥ. As @JanusBahsJacquet clarified, it derives from an earlier -s. However, -ḥ superficially manifests as such almost exclusively if the word ...
  • 350
5 votes

If the definiteness of a noun is dependent on the article that introduces it, can the gender of that noun also depend on that article?

Across languages, gender is partially a function of a lexical property of a noun, but also semantic properties of the NP. Therefore the diminutive singular of a noun could be one gender and the ...
  • 69.9k
9 votes

If the definiteness of a noun is dependent on the article that introduces it, can the gender of that noun also depend on that article?

First, English has no gender in articles, it cannot be compared. German has gendered articles, but gender in German is considered an intrinsic property of the noun, and the noun governs the gender of ...

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